A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to severe headache localized to the left frontal temporal region that began 4 hours ago. At the onset of the headache, he also had transient vision impairment in the left eye, which has now resolved. The patient has never had similar symptoms previously. Medications are acetaminophen for arthritis and metformin for recently diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus. He lives in rural Connecticut, smokes a pack of cigarettes per day, and does not use alcohol or illicit drugs. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 152/96 mm Hg, and pulse is 89/min. Pulse oximetry shows 99% on room air. Physical examination findings are shown in the exhibit.
Laboratory studies are as follows:
A noncontrast CT scan of the head shows no intracranial hemorrhage or mass lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Head and neck CT angiography
B) Inhalation of 100% oxygen
C) Intravenous labetalol and nitroprusside
D) Lyme serologic testing
E) Temporal artery biopsy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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