A 66-year-old man comes to the emergency department with progressive lower back pain, urinary incontinence, and decreased appetite for the past 2 days. He was recently diagnosed with L4-L5 disc herniation and received an epidural injection for radicular pain 2 weeks ago. His other medical problems include type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Temperature is 38.3 C (100.9 F) , blood pressure is 136/88 mm Hg, pulse is 96/min, and respirations are 14/min. The patient is alert and oriented. Physical examination shows poor dentition, tenderness on palpation of the lumbar spine, and absent deep-tendon reflexes in both lower extremities. Rectal examination shows decreased rectal sphincter tone and an enlarged, smooth prostate. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Intravenous glucocorticoids
B) Lumbar puncture
C) Magnetic resonance imaging of the spine
D) Serum prostate-specific antigen and bone scan
E) Tagged white blood cell scan
Correct Answer:
Verified
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