A 22-year-old woman comes to the physician with her husband for intermittent dizziness, weakness, and unsteady gait for the last several weeks. She has also had visual loss and pain in the right eye that worsens with eye movement for the past 2 days. A year ago, the patient had tingling and numbness of her right hand accompanied by unsteadiness, which improved spontaneously after 3-4 days. She has no other medical problems and does not take any medications. The patient has no significant social or family history. Her temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 122/80 mm Hg, pulse is 82/min, and respirations are 16/min. On neurologic examination, her right eye has diminished visual acuity and an afferent pupillary defect. She also has a right arm intention tremor. Both lower extremities have spastic paresis, hyperreflexia, and positive Babinski sign. The patient returns to the physician due to painful muscle spasms. She has frequent episodes of pain and stiffness in both legs, especially when rising from her bed. She has tried home stretching exercise without significant relief. The patient is afebrile and has no new neurological deficits. Increased muscle tone is noted in the lower extremities. Laboratory evaluation, including electrolytes, is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's current symptoms?
A) Amantadine
B) Baclofen
C) Benztropine
D) High-dose prednisone
E) Pyridostigmine
Correct Answer:
Verified
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