A 63-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department with left-sided weakness that started an hour ago. According to family members, the patient dropped her fork while having dinner and subsequently was unable to walk. Medical history includes hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examination shows normal S1 and S2 and no carotid bruits. Neurologic examination shows dense, left-sided hemiplegia. After initial evaluation, including a noncontrast CT scan of the head that is negative for hemorrhage, tissue plasminogen activator is administered. The patient is not a candidate for mechanical thrombectomy. Five hours later, the left-sided weakness is improved. The patient has no headache, blurred vision, or nausea. Blood pressure is 198/110 mm Hg and pulse is 87/min and regular. Finger-stick glucose level is 143 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?
A) Full-dose anticoagulation with heparin
B) Intravenous labetalol
C) Oral anticoagulant therapy
D) Oral aspirin
E) Oral hydrochlorothiazide
Correct Answer:
Verified
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