A 46-year-old African-American male has a large pituitary mass, which was seen on a CT scan of his head following a head injury. He denies any symptoms, except for mild erectile impotence. Physical examination reveals a right, upper, temporal, quadrantic field defect. His hormonal profile shows a prolactin level of 5,000 ng/mL (normal 5-20 ng/ml) . His IGF-1, TSH, and free T4 levels are normal, while his LH and FSH levels are low. MRI reveals a 2.5 cm pituitary mass abutting, but not elevating, the optic chiasm. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
A) Transphenoidal resection of pituitary adenoma
B) Transcranial resection of pituitary adenoma
C) Testosterone replacement
D) Gamma knife radiation treatment
E) Oral dopaminergic receptor agonist
Correct Answer:
Verified
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