A 45-year-old Caucasian man comes to see you in the office. He is accompanied by his wife. They have noticed that he has shakiness of both hands for the past six months. The shakiness is limited only to his hands and has not progressed over time. It becomes much more pronounced when he tries to pick up things or attempts to eat or drink. On physical examination, you notice a constant tremor in both his hands, which becomes much more pronounced when his arms are outstretched. There is also a very subtle head tremor present. There is no rigidity or slowing of voluntary movements in the upper or lower extremities. His father had a similar problem in his 50s or 60s, but he is not sure what treatment he received at that time. His wife is extremely anxious and wants to know his prognosis.
The patient works as a carpenter and feels that he is unable to perform the fine motor tasks due to the tremor. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A) Do nothing at this point.
B) Refer him for physical therapy.
C) Start the patient on propranolol.
D) Start the patient on levodopa-carbidopa combination.
E) Start the patient on pramipexole.
Correct Answer:
Verified
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