A 27-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 9 weeks gestation comes to the office for an initial prenatal visit. She feels well and has had no abdominal pain or vaginal bleeding. The patient has sickle cell disease and has had multiple hospitalizations and transfusions for acute pain episodes. She was previously on hydroxyurea, but it was discontinued several months ago when she began attempting conception. The patient has had no acute pain episodes since discontinuation of the medication. She has no other chronic medical conditions and her only surgery was a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. She is up to date on vaccinations. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 150/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 76/min. Pulse oximetry is 99% on room air. BMI is 22 kg/m2. Cardiac examination reveals a normal rate and regular rhythm. The lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Pelvic examination shows a 9-week-sized uterus without adnexal masses or tenderness. Urine dipstick shows 1+ proteinuria. Ultrasound confirms a 9-week intrauterine gestation with fetal cardiac activity. Which of the following is the next best step in management of this patient?
A) 24-hour urine collection for total protein
B) Cell-free fetal DNA test
C) Group B Streptococcus rectovaginal culture
D) Oral ferrous sulfate supplementation
E) Purified protein derivative skin test
Correct Answer:
Verified
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