A 37-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 3, comes to the emergency department due to contractions and vaginal bleeding. She has no leakage of fluid and has had normal fetal movement. The patient did not receive prenatal care, and her last menstrual period was 10 months ago. Her 3 prior pregnancies ended in uncomplicated, term vaginal deliveries. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and takes no medications. Blood pressure is 130/82 mm Hg and pulse is 78/min. The fetal heart rate shows moderate variability, no accelerations, and occasional late decelerations. The tocodynamometer shows contractions every 3 minutes. The cervix is dilated 8 cm and 100% effaced, and the fetal head is at +1 station. The patient is admitted and precipitously delivers a small-for-gestational-age (2.8-kg [6.2-lb]) male infant. Apgar scores are 8 and 9 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. The infant has green, wrinkled, peeling skin; thin fingers; and long fingernails. Loose skin and prominent skin creases are noted over the thighs and buttocks. The placental membranes are stained green. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this infant's examination findings?
A) Congenital infection
B) Fetal aneuploidy syndrome
C) Fetal postmaturity
D) Gestational diabetes mellitus
E) Intraamniotic infection
Correct Answer:
Verified
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