A 29-year-old Asian woman, gravida 1 para 0, comes to the office at 26 weeks gestation for prenatal care. The patient has no abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, or leakage of fluid. Fetal movement is normal. For the last few weeks, she has become increasingly fatigued and is sleeping at least 8 hours a night in addition to taking an afternoon nap. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated and initial prenatal laboratory results were as follows:
The patient has no chronic medical conditions and has had no previous surgeries. She takes a daily prenatal vitamin; however, she was unable to begin taking it until 18 weeks gestation due to daily nausea and vomiting. Blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg and pulse is 64/min. Weight is 60 kg (132.3 lb) , a 5-kg (11-lb) increase from her prepregnancy weight. Fetal heart rate is 145/min by Doppler ultrasound. Fundal height is 26 cm. Urine dipstick is negative for protein and glucose. Routine third-trimester laboratory results include the following:
The results of a peripheral blood smear are shown below:
The patient asks about the cause of her fatigue and whether she needs treatment. Which of the following is the most appropriate response to this patient?
A) The anemia is due to hemoglobinopathy and requires further evaluation with hemoglobin electrophoresis.
B) The anemia is due to increased nutrient requirements during pregnancy and requires iron supplementation.
C) The anemia is due to persistent vomiting in early pregnancy and requires vitamin B12 supplementation.
D) The anemia is due to physiologic changes of pregnancy, and no further treatment is indicated.
E) The anemia is due to the lack of prenatal vitamins, and folic acid supplementation is indicated.
Correct Answer:
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