A 42-year-old woman, gravida 6 para 6, is evaluated in the postpartum unit on postoperative day 2 after a cesarean delivery. The patient has had increasing vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, and fever. She is breastfeeding exclusively with a good latch. The patient was initially admitted to the hospital for prelabor rupture of membranes at 40 weeks gestation. A primary cesarean delivery was performed for arrest of descent of a 5-kg (11-lb) infant after 3 hours of pushing. The pregnancy was complicated by recurrent vaginal candidiasis. Prior pregnancies were uncomplicated; the patient's last delivery was 12 years ago. Temperature is 38.7 C (101.7 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 114/min, and respirations are 18/min. On physical examination, the patient appears pale and tired. The lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally; the breasts are full but without erythema. The uterine fundus is tender to palpation. Speculum examination shows heavy lochia but no active bleeding. The transverse incision across the lower abdomen is intact and without erythema or drainage.
Which of the following is this patient's most important risk factor for her current postpartum infection?
A) Advanced maternal age
B) Fetal weight
C) Gestational age
D) Recurrent Candida infection
E) Route of delivery
Correct Answer:
Verified
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