A 28-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 37 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department due to leakage of fluid and painful uterine contractions that occur every 2-5 minutes. The patient has a spontaneous dichorionic/diamniotic twin gestation; her pregnancy has otherwise been uncomplicated. Serial ultrasounds throughout the pregnancy have consistently shown concordant growth of the twins. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and has had no surgery. She takes a daily prenatal vitamin. Examination confirms rupture of membranes; on digital examination the cervix is 5 cm dilated. Bedside ultrasound reveals that both twins are in vertex presentation. The patient is admitted to the hospital for labor, and epidural analgesia is administered. Twin A is delivered vaginally 8 hours after admission, with Apgars of 8 and 9 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. The patient is reexamined and the cervix has contracted to 9 cm, 100% effaced, with the vertex of twin B at −2 station. The amniotic membranes are intact. Fetal heart tracing is category 1. Tocometry shows contractions every 2-3 minutes. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Cesarean delivery
B) Expectant management
C) Forceps-assisted vaginal delivery
D) Internal podalic version
E) Oxytocin augmentation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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