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A 26-Year-Old Woman, Gravida 1 Para 0, at 39 Weeks

Question 818

Multiple Choice

A 26-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 39 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital with painful contractions.  The patient has had no vaginal bleeding or rupture of membranes.  Fetal movement is normal.  Her pregnancy has been complicated by diet-controlled gestational diabetes mellitus.  She has no other chronic medical conditions and has had no surgeries.  Blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg and pulse is 84/min.  Fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline of 140/min, moderate variability, accelerations, and no decelerations.  The tocodynamometer shows contractions every 3 minutes.  Cervical examination reveals the cervix to be 7 cm dilated and 100% effaced, with the fetal head at 0 station.  Epidural anesthesia is administered.  Two hours later, the patient is reevaluated for labor progression.  Fetal heart tracing continues to be normal.  The tocodynamometer now shows contractions every 4-6 minutes.  Examination reveals the cervix to be 7 cm dilated and 100% effaced with the fetal head at 0 station, unchanged from the previous examination.  Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?


A) Administer amnioinfusion
B) Administer intravenous oxytocin
C) Administer misoprostol
D) Perform cesarean delivery
E) Repeat cervical examination in an hour

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