A 31-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 36 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department due to regular menstrual-like cramping and low back pain. She reports no leakage of fluid or vaginal bleeding; fetal movement is normal. The patient's pregnancy has been uncomplicated. Her first pregnancy resulted in an uncomplicated vaginal delivery at 39 weeks gestation. She has no medical problems and had an appendectomy at age 15. She takes a prenatal vitamin daily. The patient has no known drug allergies. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 94/min. The fetal heart rate monitor shows a baseline of 145/min, moderate variability, and no decelerations. The tocometer shows contractions every 3-4 minutes. Pelvic examination shows the cervix to be 4 cm dilated and 50% effaced. Ultrasound confirms a vertex presentation and an occiput posterior position. Prenatal laboratory results are notable for A, Rh(D) -negative blood type and a recent negative group B Streptococcus culture. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Amniotomy
B) Cesarean delivery
C) Corticosteroids
D) Rho(D) immunoglobulin
E) Tocolysis
Correct Answer:
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