A 27-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 28 weeks gestation comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit. Her initial prenatal laboratory results at 12 weeks gestation were as follows:
The patient reports no vaginal bleeding, leakage of fluid, or contractions. There is good fetal movement. She has increasing urinary frequency and nocturia but no dysuria or hematuria. The patient has a history of tension headaches, which have become more frequent but resolve with acetaminophen. She has no other chronic medical conditions or previous surgeries. The patient works in a retirement home and reports leg swelling at the end of her shift. She is a vegetarian and takes a daily prenatal vitamin. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 128/76 mm Hg, and pulse is 86/min. BMI is 30 kg/m2; the patient has been gaining 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) a week during the pregnancy. The fetal heart rate is 152/min. Examination shows a uterus consistent with a 28-week gestation. There is trace lower extremity edema bilaterally. The patient has had no laboratory evaluations since her initial prenatal visit. The patient's test results from the 28-week prenatal visit are as follows:
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Gestational thrombocytopenia
B) Preeclampsia with severe features
C) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
D) Vitamin B12 deficiency
E) von Willebrand disease
Correct Answer:
Verified
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