A 33-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 33 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department due to continuous leakage of fluid that began 2 hours ago. The fluid is clear and not malodorous, and she has had no contractions or vaginal bleeding. Fetal movement is normal. This pregnancy was complicated by bacterial vaginosis in the first trimester that resolved after a course of antibiotics. Her previous pregnancy ended in a vaginal delivery at 37 weeks gestation after induction of labor for prelabor rupture of membranes. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and has had no previous surgeries. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 110/68 mm Hg, and pulse is 92/min. The uterine fundus is nontender. On speculum examination, there is a clear pool of fluid that is nitrazine positive and crystallizes in a fern-like pattern after drying on a slide. The cervix appears visibly closed; digital cervical examination is deferred. The fetal heart rate tracing demonstrates a normal baseline, moderate variability, accelerations, and no decelerations. Transabdominal ultrasound reveals a fetus in vertex presentation and an amniotic fluid index of 3 cm. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Administer intramuscular progesterone
B) Administer intravenous magnesium sulfate
C) Administer prophylactic latency antibiotics
D) Initiate induction of labor
E) Perform emergent cesarean delivery
Correct Answer:
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