A 36-year-old woman, gravida 6 para 5, at 41 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department for spontaneous rupture of membranes and contractions every 3 minutes; she has had no vaginal bleeding. Fetal movement is normal. The patient's current pregnancy has been uncomplicated. A 1-hour glucose challenge test was 155 mg/dL at 28 weeks gestation; however, a 3-hour glucose tolerance test was normal. She has no chronic medical conditions and has had no previous surgery. Vital signs are normal. The fetal heart rate tracing is category 1. The tocometer shows contractions every 3 minutes. Fundal height is 42 cm. Pelvic examination confirms rupture of membranes and the cervix is 5 cm dilated. The patient is admitted and epidural analgesia is administered. Her labor progresses normally. After 15 minutes of pushing, the fetal head delivers and, immediately after it delivers, retracts into the perineum. The patient is instructed to push, gentle downward traction is applied to the fetal head, and the anterior fetal shoulder does not deliver. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Apply increased downward traction to the fetal head during the next contraction
B) Deliver the posterior fetal arm
C) Replace the fetal head in the vagina and perform an emergency cesarean delivery
D) Rotate the fetus by applying pressure to the posterior fetal shoulder
E) While the mother is supine, hyperflex the maternal legs at the hip
Correct Answer:
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