A 76-year-old woman is hospitalized due to a fracture of her right proximal femur from an accidental nonsyncopal fall. Medical history is notable for breast cancer treated with a radical mastectomy 10 years ago, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. She drinks a pint of vodka daily, but does not use tobacco or illicit drugs. The patient is started on thiamine and folic acid, and the next morning she undergoes orthopedic surgery for internal fixation of the right femur. She experiences mild agitation postoperatively, which is managed with as-needed, low-dose benzodiazepines. In addition, she is treated with low-molecular-weight heparin, opiates, and continued vitamin supplementation. On her third postoperative day, the nurse finds her agitated and in significant distress. The patient has an episode of nonbloody vomiting. On initial evaluation, she appears restless and confused but follows commands. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 92/58 mm Hg, pulse is 122/min and regular, and respirations are 31/min. Pulse oximetry is 75% on room air and improves to 82% with supplemental oxygen by non-rebreather mask. Chest auscultation reveals no crackles or wheezes. Cardiac examination demonstrates tachycardia with a regular rhythm and normal S1 and S2. The abdomen is soft. Her pupils are equal and reactive to light, and she is moving all extremities.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Cardiac biomarkers, ECG, and bedside echocardiography
B) Immediate CT angiography of the chest
C) Intravenous etomidate, succinylcholine, and endotracheal intubation
D) Intravenous lorazepam and high-flow oxygen via mask
E) Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation
Correct Answer:
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