A 38-year-old woman comes to the office due to worsening asthma symptoms for 2-3 days. She has shortness of breath, wheezing, and productive cough. The patient describes thick sputum that was blood-tinged yesterday. She was diagnosed with asthma 12 years ago but says that it had not been this bad until last year. For the past year the patient has had 2 hospitalizations for asthma exacerbations but has never been intubated. She completed a course of oral prednisone and azithromycin 2 months ago. Current medications include a daily fluticasone inhaler and as-needed albuterol inhaler. The patient reports no decrease in appetite or weight loss and has not travelled outside of her home state of New Jersey in the past 2 years. She works as a school teacher and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. The patient has no second-hand tobacco exposure and no known allergies. Her grandmother also has asthma. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 123/80 mm Hg, pulse is 94/min, and respirations are 16/min. Pulse oximetry shows 95% on room air. Pulmonary examination reveals scattered wheezes. Heart sounds are normal. There is no clubbing, peripheral edema, or skin rashes. Complete blood count shows the following:
Chest x-ray reveals patchy bilateral upper lobe infiltrates and prominent bronchial markings. Which of the following is the best next step in diagnosing the cause of this patient's worsening symptoms?
A) Allergy skin testing for Aspergillus
B) Asking the patient to demonstrate proper inhaler technique
C) Bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage
D) Pulmonary function testing
E) Sputum culture and acid-fast staining
Correct Answer:
Verified
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