A 27-year-old man comes to the emergency department with sudden onset of shortness of breath. He ran out of his asthma medication 10 days ago. He has been intubated twice in the past 6 months due to severe asthma exacerbations. On physical examination, his temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 142/64 mm Hg, heart rate is 110/min, and respirations are 28/min. His oxygen saturation is 84% on room air and improves to 94% on nonrebreather mask. The patient is alert but appears to be in respiratory distress with some use of accessory muscles of respiration. His lung examination shows equal, bilateral air entry with diffuse wheezing throughout both lung fields. His peak expiratory flow rate is 60% of his personal best, based on his prior admissions.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Administer a single intravenous dose of 2 g magnesium sulfate
B) Discharge the patient on albuterol inhaler and oral steroids
C) Start the patient on aggressive inhaled beta-2 adrenergic agonist therapy
D) Start the patient on intravenous corticosteroids and then admit to general medical floor
E) Start the patient on intravenous theophylline in the emergency department
Correct Answer:
Verified
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