A 59-year-old man comes to the office due to cough and mild dyspnea. His symptoms began 10 days ago with nasal congestion and a sore throat, which improved spontaneously after a few days. However, the cough, productive of white sputum, has persisted. He has also had an episode of blood-streaked sputum. The patient has a history of hypertension and stable coronary artery disease. He is a current smoker with a 20-pack-year history. The patient is a car salesman and has not traveled recently. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 110/72 mm Hg, and respirations are 18/min. Lung examination shows scattered wheezes bilaterally. Chest x-ray demonstrates no parenchymal infiltrate or consolidation, but a 2-cm peripherally located nodule is present in the left lower lobe. No prior chest imaging is available.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management of this patient?
A) CT scan of the chest
B) Oral macrolide antibiotic therapy
C) Reassurance and symptomatic treatment only
D) Repeat chest x-ray in 2-3 months
E) Sputum analysis for acid-fast bacilli
Correct Answer:
Verified
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