A 38-year-old woman in the intensive care unit is evaluated for worsening hypoxia. The patient was admitted a week ago due to dyspnea and nonproductive cough. At that time, diffuse crackles were found on lung examination, and chest x-ray revealed bilateral infiltrates. The patient smoked crack cocaine and used intravenous heroin prior to symptom onset. She required endotracheal intubation due to hypoxic respiratory failure and has been mechanically ventilated. Her respiratory condition has gradually improved over the past week, but in the last 2 days she has required a higher fraction of inspired oxygen. The patient has also had increased tracheobronchial secretions. Temperature is 38.9 C (102 F) , blood pressure is 112/71 mm Hg, pulse is 114/min, and respirations are 22/min. Central venous pressure is 8 cm H2O. Lung auscultation reveals bilateral crackles. Heart sounds are normal with no murmur or gallop. The abdomen is soft and nondistended with normoactive bowel sounds. She has no dependent edema or skin rash. Ventilator settings, arterial blood gases, and laboratory results are as follows:
Repeat chest x-ray reveals asymmetric worsening of the lung infiltrate. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) CT pulmonary angiography
B) Intravenous furosemide
C) Prone position ventilation
D) Systemic glucocorticoids
E) Tracheobronchial aspirate for culture
Correct Answer:
Verified
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