A 59-year-old man comes to the office due to cough and mild dyspnea. His symptoms began 10 days ago with nasal congestion and a sore throat, which improved spontaneously after a few days. However, the cough, productive of white sputum, has persisted. He has also had an episode of blood-streaked sputum. The patient has a history of hypertension and stable coronary artery disease. He is a current smoker with a 20-pack-year history. The patient is a car salesman and has not traveled recently. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 110/72 mm Hg, and respirations are 18/min. Lung examination shows scattered wheezes bilaterally. Chest x-ray demonstrates no parenchymal infiltrate or consolidation, but a 2-cm peripherally located nodule is present in the left lower lobe. No prior chest imaging is available. CT scan of the chest confirms a 2.2-cm, peripherally located nodule in the left lower lobe surrounded by lung parenchyma. The nodule has spiculated borders and eccentric calcification on the periphery, and no lymphadenopathy is present. CT scan of the abdomen reveals no abnormalities of the liver or adrenal glands. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient's lung lesion?
A) Fiberoptic bronchoscopy
B) Induced sputum cytology
C) No additional intervention
D) Referral for surgical excision
E) Repeat CT scan in 6 months
Correct Answer:
Verified
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