A 34-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to 3 weeks of nonproductive cough, increasing shortness of breath, subjective fevers, night sweats, and intermittent right-sided, sharp chest pain. Two weeks ago, the patient was diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia at an urgent care clinic and received a week of oral antibiotics without symptomatic improvement. He has no other medical problems and takes no medications. The patient has a history of injection drug use and was recently incarcerated. Temperature is 37.7 C (99.8 F) , blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. Chest examination reveals decreased breath sounds and dullness to percussion in the right lower chest. Heart sounds are normal and without murmurs. The abdomen is soft and non-tender with no hepatosplenomegaly. He has no skin rash or enlarged lymph nodes. Chest imaging reveals a right lower lobe pulmonary infiltrate and moderate-sized pleural effusion. A thoracentesis is performed; the pleural fluid is lymphocyte predominant and exudative with an elevated adenosine deaminase level. No organisms are seen on smear. Rapid HIV testing is positive. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient's pleural effusion?
A) Antiretroviral therapy
B) Bronchoalveolar lavage for Pneumocystis jirovecii
C) Intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics
D) Pleural biopsy
E) Urine Histoplasmaantigen
Correct Answer:
Verified
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