A 35-year-old man comes to the office due to joint pain. The patient is a charter pilot and operates flights from Wisconsin to the Caribbean islands, where he frequently stays for several weeks. During his most recent trip 3 months ago, he had fever and malaise for several days accompanied by severe pain in his fingers, wrists, and ankles. Since then, he has had persistent joint pain that has slightly improved over time. The patient has no fever, night sweats, rash, or abdominal symptoms. He is also an avid hiker. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 130/72 mm Hg, and pulse is 80/min. No scleral icterus, mucosal lesions, or lymphadenopathy is present. The lungs are clear on auscultation, and there are no heart murmurs. The abdomen is soft and nontender with no hepatosplenomegaly. Tenderness and mild swelling are noted in the bilateral wrists, metacarpophalangeal joints, and ankles. No rash is present. Blood cell counts and serum chemistry study results are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A) Chikungunya
B) Ehrlichiosis
C) Lyme disease
D) Malaria
E) Typhoid fever
Correct Answer:
Verified
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