An 18-year-old woman comes to the office due to pain on urination and "constantly feeling like I have to go to the bathroom even though I go several times every hour." The patient is sexually active with her boyfriend and, since her symptoms began 3 days ago, has felt pain during intercourse but has not had fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, or flank pain. The patient uses condoms consistently during intercourse. Her last menstrual period was 4 weeks ago. She has no chronic medical conditions or surgeries. The patient has no known drug allergies. Temperature is 37.8 C (100 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 82/min, and respirations are 18/min. Mild suprapubic tenderness is present on abdominal examination. Pelvic examination shows no cervical discharge or cervical motion tenderness. The remainder of the examination is normal. Urinalysis shows positive leukocyte esterase, positive nitrites, and 10 red blood cells/hpf. A decision is made to treat the patient with one week of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. The patient's pregnancy test is positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her presenting symptoms?
A) Amoxicillin-clavulanate
B) Ceftriaxone
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Gentamicin
E) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Correct Answer:
Verified
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