A 76-year-old woman comes to the office due to malaise accompanied by diffuse, achy pain. The pain began 6 weeks ago and is most pronounced around her shoulder and pelvic girdle muscles. The patient has no headache, visual symptoms, fever, rash, muscle weakness, or urinary symptoms. She has a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and osteoporosis. The patient's medications include enalapril, simvastatin, alendronate, and hydrochlorothiazide. Family history is unremarkable. She does not use tobacco or alcohol. Physical examination shows mild tenderness in the muscles of the pelvic girdle. The rest of the physical examination is unrevealing. Routine laboratory studies, including serum creatine kinase levels, are normal. What is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Discontinue simvastatin
B) Measure erythrocyte sedimentation rate
C) Perform muscle biopsy
D) Start nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug
E) Start prednisone
Correct Answer:
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