A 70-year-old man comes to the physician for pain and stiffness of his neck, shoulders, and hips for the last 3 months. His stiffness is worse in the morning and lasts 1-2 hours. He also complains of general malaise and a recent weight loss of 3.17 kg (7 lb) . The patient has no headache, scalp tenderness, visual symptoms, or jaw claudication. Examination shows no overt synovitis at the joints, with normal passive range of motion. The arteries of the scalp, neck, and extremities are normal on palpation without any tenderness. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Measurement of antinuclear antibodies and rheumatoid factor levels
B) Temporal artery biopsy
C) Treatment with high-dose prednisone
D) Treatment with low-dose prednisone
E) Treatment with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug
Correct Answer:
Verified
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