A 36-year-old woman comes to the office due to joint pain during sexual intercourse. Over the past year, she has had difficulty during intercourse due to limited range of motion of the right hip and pain radiating from the hip to the low back. The patient has tried a number of medications, including acetaminophen and naproxen, without relief. In addition to bilateral osteoarthritis of the hips and knees, medical history is notable for morbid obesity, obstructive sleep apnea, and mixed hyperlipidemia. For the past 6 months, the patient has been in a supervised weight-loss program consisting of a modified diet and orlistat and has lost 3 kg (6.6 lb) . BMI is 41 kg/m2. Physical examination shows limited abduction of the right leg due to pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Hip joint resurfacing
B) Referral for bariatric surgery evaluation
C) Referral for right hip replacement
D) Soft pads under the back during sexual intercourse
E) Strict low-calorie diet, low-dose amitriptyline, and physical therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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