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A 52-Year-Old Caucasian Woman Presents to the Office for the Evaluation

Question 1042

Multiple Choice

A 52-year-old Caucasian woman presents to the office for the evaluation of a constant left groin pain.  The pain started spontaneously about a week ago and is gradually progressive.  It is worse with walking and weight bearing.  She has a past medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus, chronic renal insufficiency, and hypertension.  She has been maintained on 20 mg/day of prednisone for eight months.  Attempts to decrease the dose of prednisone in the past have caused a flare of lupus activity.  She does not smoke or drink alcohol.  On physical examination, she walks with a limp.  There is marked discomfort and limitation of the range of motion on the left side. The radiologic imaging reveals that the patient has stage 4 osteonecrosis of the femoral head.  She has considerable pain on weight bearing, and this is affecting her daily activities.  Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?


A) Complete bed rest and analgesics for 6 weeks
B) Core decompression
C) Total hip replacement
D) Stop prednisone for a month
E) Aggressive physical therapy including weight bearing exercises

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