A 35-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 37 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She feels well. She states that she did not follow up with her gynecologist on a regular basis due to a busy work schedule. Pregnancy and delivery of her first two children were uncomplicated. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 155/95 mm Hg. All other vital signs are normal. Urinalysis shows 2+ protein. This patient's condition is most likely due to decreased activity of which of the following?

Question

A 35-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 37 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She feels well. She states that she did not follow up with her gynecologist on a regular basis due to a busy work schedule. Pregnancy and delivery of her first two children were uncomplicated. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 155/95 mm Hg. All other vital signs are normal.  Urinalysis shows 2+ protein.  This patient's condition is most likely due to decreased activity of which of the following?

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Eductional Objective: Preeclampsia is new-onset hypertension (systolic >140 mm Hg or diastolic >90 mm Hg) with proteinuria and/or signs of end-organ damage (eg, renal insufficiency).  Preeclampsia is associated with widespread maternal endothelial dysfunction, which occurs due to increased antiangiogenic factor release and decreased proangiogenic factor activity (eg, vascular endothelial growth factor).

A 35-Year-Old Woman, Gravida 3, Para 2, at 37 Weeks