64-year-old woman with osteoarthritis is brought to the hospital because of a 2-day history of nausea and vomiting. Over the past few weeks, she has been taking acetaminophen frequently for worsening knee pain. Examination shows scleral icterus and tender hepatomegaly. She appears confused. Pupils are normal in size and reactive to light. Neurologic examination shows no abnormalities Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of drug toxicity in this patient?
A) Cytotoxic T-cell response to hepatocyte proteins
B) Drug-mediated inhibition of bile flow
C) Drug metabolite-induced mitochondrial dysfunction
D) Drug-induced disruption of fatty acid metabolism
E) Reactive oxygen species-induced stellate cell activation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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