A 45-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a 1-day history of black, tarry stools. He has also had upper abdominal pain that occurs immediately after eating. Three weeks ago, he developed lower back pain with stiffness and was started on naproxen and cyclobenzaprine. He has no prior medical conditions. He has an allergy to penicillin that causes a rash and pruritus. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals gastric mucosal erythema and erosions. Which of the following best explains this patient's current symptoms?
A) Exaggerated drug sensitivity
B) Idiosyncratic drug reaction
C) Immunologic drug reaction
D) Predictable drug reaction
E) Pseudoallergic drug reaction
Correct Answer:
Verified
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