A 60-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to persistent dyspnea. He has a history of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. He has had no lightheadedness or chest pain. Blood pressure is 128/72 mm Hg and pulse is 81/min. After stabilization of the patient condition and medications are modified, he is discharged with the addition of a combination pill that inhibits neprilysin and blocks angiotensin II receptors. Which of the following is the most likely effect of this medication?
A) Decreased renal free-water reabsorption
B) Decreased venous compliance
C) Increased myocardial contractility
D) Increased peripheral arterial resistance
E) Increased urinary sodium excretion
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q61: A 25-year-old male visits the office complaining
Q62: A 60-year-old man visits the office with
Q63: A 29-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office
Q64: A 48-year-old woman who has type 2
Q65: A 67-year-old woman comes to the office suffering
Q67: A study is being carried out to
Q68: A 60-year-old man comes to the office
Q69: A 60-year-old man comes in for a
Q70: A 60-year-old man comes to the office
Q71: A 44-year-old woman comes to the physician
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents