A 34-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up appointment because of muscle weakness She feels well. The patient has a history of hypertension and migraine. was started on hydrochlorothiazide 4 weeks ago. Blood pressure is 138/86 mm Hg and pulse is 78/minFor the past year, the frequency of headaches has been increasing and they now occur 1-2 times per week. Her medications are sumatriptan and hydrochlorothiazide. Based on his most recent laboratory results, triamterene is added to the current therapy. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of this medication?
A) Blocking renal tubular epithelial sodium channels
B) Decreased aldosterone production
C) Increased intestinal absorption of potassium
D) Inhibiting aldosterone receptor activity in renal collecting duct
E) Inhibiting Na+/K+ ATPase activity in skeletal muscle
Correct Answer:
Verified
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