A 20-year-old male comes to the physician because of a 1-week-history of a painless ulceration on his penis. The patient is sexually active with multiple partners and does not use barrier protection. He underwent testing for sexually transmitted infections and was found to have a positive VDRL and fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test. The patient received an intramuscular injection of benzathine penicillin G. Several hours later, he comes to the hopsital due to fever, chills, headache, and myalgias. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current symptoms?
A) Conjugation of antibiotic and host antigens
B) Disease progression due to antibiotic resistance
C) Drug-induced bacterial cell wall disintegration
D) Immune sensitization from prior penicillin exposure
E) Poor renal tubular excretion of the drug
Correct Answer:
Verified
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