A 30-year-old female G0 P0 has a history significant for oligomenorrhea. For the last 6 months she has not had any bleeding. She is not sexually active. Her physical exam is significant for a BMI of 28 but otherwise unremarkable. Her TSH and prolactin are normal, her serum estradiol is low and FSH is elevated, and she did not have withdrawal bleeding with the progesterone challenge test. The most likely etiology of secondary amenorrhea in this case is:

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

The elevated FSH and low estradiol levels suggest ovarian insufficiency, as the ovaries are not responding to FSH stimulation, leading to low estrogen production.

A 30-Year-Old Female G0 P0 Has a History Significant for Oligomenorrhea