Deck 41: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument

Question 1

In which layer of the skin are fat cells located?

A) Epidermis
B) Dermis
C) Subcutaneous layer
D) Fascia beneath the skin

Answer 1

Subcutaneous layer

Question 2

A patient wants to know which malignant skin lesion is the most serious. What is the correct response?

A) Basal cell carcinoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Kaposi sarcoma (KS)
D) Malignant melanoma

Answer 2

Malignant melanoma

Question 3

A 45-year-old male presents with a chronic blister-forming disease of the skin and oral mucous membranes. The nurse would recognize this condition as:

A) lupus erythematosus.
B) pemphigus.
C) psoriasis.
D) eczema.

Answer 3

pemphigus.

Question 4

What is the cause of pityriasis rosea?

A) Parasite
B) Virus
C) Bacteria
D) Fungus

Question 5

For a patient with candidiasis, which factor will exacerbate the condition?

A) Poor hygiene
B) Older age
C) Systemic antibiotics
D) Anemia

Question 6

Which cells are involved in initiating immune responses in the skin?

A) Langerhans cells
B) Merkel cells
C) Keratinocytes
D) Melanocyte

Question 7

A 42-year-old female presents with raised red lesions with a brownish scale. She was diagnosed with discoid lupus erythematosus. This disorder is related to:

A) infection.
B) trauma.
C) autoimmunity.
D) cancer.

Question 8

A 52-year-old female diagnosed with systemic scleroderma will likely present with which manifestation?

A) Cutaneous vasculitis
B) Raynaud phenomenon
C) Cellulitis
D) Infection

Question 9

Of the sweat glands, the _____ glands are most abundant in the axillae and genital areas.

A) eccrine
B) apocrine
C) sebaceous
D) subcutaneous

Question 10

If a patient has carbuncles, where will the infection will be located?

A) Hair follicles
B) Papillary layer of the dermis
C) Reticular layer of the dermis
D) Subcutaneous tissue

Question 11

When assessing a patient diagnosed with localized scleroderma, which changes in the skin will be observed?

A) Cyanosis
B) Hyperpigmented
C) Necrosis
D) Thickening

Question 12

A wound scar that is sharply elevated, irregularly shaped, and progressively enlarging is a result of excessive amounts of _____ accumulated during connective tissue repair.

A) elastin
B) collagen
C) keratin
D) calcification

Question 13

What type of skin is most prone to keloid?

A) Darkly pigmented skin
B) Freckled skin
C) Pale skin
D) Immunocompromised skin

Question 14

A 50-year-old male recently underwent a liver transplant and is taking immunosuppressive drugs. He now has painful vesicular eruptions on the face and trunk. He reports that he had chicken pox as a child. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis based on his chicken pox history?

A) Erysipelas
B) Poliomyelitis
C) Warts
D) Herpes zoster

Question 15

A 40-year-old is diagnosed with skin cancer. It is explained that the most important risk factor for skin cancer is:

A) chronic exposure to ultraviolet radiation.
B) amount of sun exposure over age 50.
C) vitamin D deficiency.
D) living in equatorial regions where the sun is most intense.

Question 16

A 20-year-old female presents with vaginal itch and thin-walled pustular lesions and is diagnosed with candidiasis. What is this condition caused by?

A) Yeast-like fungus
B) Virus
C) Bacterium
D) Parasite

Question 17

A 13-year-old female is concerned about several pigmented skin lesions on her body. Her primary care provider tells her that these lesions must be monitored because of their ability to transform into malignant melanoma. What are these lesions referred to as?

A) Macules
B) Nevi
C) Plaques
D) Keloids

Question 18

To promote efficient wound healing, which dressing should be applied to a superficial ulcer?

A) Thick and dry
B) Flat and moist
C) Bulky and dry
D) None

Question 19

An increase in _____ is associated with pruritus.

A) substance P
B) norepinephrine
C) dopamine
D) histamine

Question 20

A 25-year-old paralyzed male develops a dermal pressure ulcer. When assessing the patient's skin, which finding is the first indication of this ulcer?

A) Redness
B) Whiteness
C) Indurations
D) Ulceration

Question 21

A patient is burned through all the dermis with only a few epidermal appendages intact. This burn is classified as:

A) first degree.
B) superficial partial thickness.
C) deep partial thickness.
D) third degree.

Question 22

A 28-year-old male is admitted to the burn unit 2 hours after receiving second- and third-degree burns over 50% of his body surface in an industrial explosion. Abnormal vital signs include low blood pressure and tachycardia. Lab results show a high hematocrit due to:

A) sickle cell syndrome.
B) fluid movement out of the vascular space.
C) kidney failure.
D) increased vascular protein secondary to increased metabolism.

Question 23

Dermal appendages include which of the following structures? (Select all that apply.)

A) Apocrine glands
B) Nails
C) Dermal papilla
D) Hair
E) Eccrine glands

Question 24

A 15-year-old female reports abnormal hair growth on her face and body. What is this condition called?

A) Alopecia
B) Areata
C) Hirsutism
D) Paronychia

Question 25

A 30-year-old female has a history of frequent candidiasis. The area most likely affected includes which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

A) Plantar surface of the foot
B) Eyes
C) Ears
D) Mucous membranes
E) Vagina

Question 26

Which of the following burns is most painful?

A) First degree
B) Second degree
C) Charring
D) Third degree

Question 27

In burn injury patients, the rule of nines and the Lund and Browder chart are used to estimate:

A) depth of burn injury.
B) possibility of infection.
C) degree of systemic involvement.
D) total body surface area burned.

Question 28

A 36-year-old male is experiencing frontotemporal hair recession. He is diagnosed with male pattern baldness, which is a form of:

A) alopecia.
B) areata.
C) hirsutism.
D) paronychia.

Question 29

A 27-year-old male lung transplant patient developed Kaposi sarcoma (KS). The nurse knows that the cause of this patient's KS is most likely related to the fact that the patient:

A) is malnourished.
B) was exposed to hepatitis B.
C) is immunosuppressed.
D) was diagnosed with cystic fibrosis.

Question 30

Which process would be expected in the first 24 hours following a serious burn?

A) Increased capillary permeability
B) Diuresis
C) Decreased levels of stress hormones
D) Fluid overload

Question 31

A 70-year-old male nursing home resident developed a dermal pressure ulcer. This condition is most often caused by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

A) Shearing forces
B) Friction
C) Moisture
D) Unrelieved pressure
E) High-carbohydrate diet

Question 32

Hypovolemia in the early stages of burn shock is directly related to:

A) decreased cardiac contractility and shunting of blood away from visceral organs.
B) increased capillary permeability and evaporative water loss.
C) hypometabolism and renal water loss.
D) bacterial infection of the wound and resulting bacteremia.

Question 33

A 10-year-old male is playing with matches and gets burned. His burn is waxy white in appearance. This burn is classified as:

A) first degree.
B) superficial partial thickness.
C) deep partial thickness.
D) third degree.