Deck 5: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment
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Deck 5: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment
1
What describes the movement type called adduction?
A)Movement away from the midline of the body and in a transverse plane
B)Movement that decreases the joint angle with no movement in the plane
C)Movement towards the midline of the body in the frontal plane
D)Movement along the longitudinal plane
A)Movement away from the midline of the body and in a transverse plane
B)Movement that decreases the joint angle with no movement in the plane
C)Movement towards the midline of the body in the frontal plane
D)Movement along the longitudinal plane
Movement towards the midline of the body in the frontal plane
2
What describes the systemic approach to learning anatomy?
A)Anatomy learned via the gross anatomy approach
B)Anatomy learned through organized divisions of the body
C)Anatomy learned according to organ systems
D)Anatomy learned topographically
A)Anatomy learned via the gross anatomy approach
B)Anatomy learned through organized divisions of the body
C)Anatomy learned according to organ systems
D)Anatomy learned topographically
Anatomy learned according to organ systems
3
Which of the following organ systems are studied biomechanically as a health and fitness professional?
A)Skeletal, muscular, cardiovascular, and respiratory
B)Skeletal, muscular, endocrine, and respiratory
C)Muscular, endocrine, cardiovascular, and respiratory
D)Muscular, reproductive, respiratory, and skeletal
A)Skeletal, muscular, cardiovascular, and respiratory
B)Skeletal, muscular, endocrine, and respiratory
C)Muscular, endocrine, cardiovascular, and respiratory
D)Muscular, reproductive, respiratory, and skeletal
Skeletal, muscular, cardiovascular, and respiratory
4
What is the name for a grouping of disease symptoms including unstable angina pectoris, myocardial infarction, and sudden cardiac death?
A)Acute coronary syndrome
B)Cardiovascular disease
C)Atherothrombotic diseases
D)Restrictive lung disease
A)Acute coronary syndrome
B)Cardiovascular disease
C)Atherothrombotic diseases
D)Restrictive lung disease
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5
To which plane does the mediolateral axis lie perpendicular?
A)Sagittal
B)Transverse
C)Longitudinal
D)Frontal
A)Sagittal
B)Transverse
C)Longitudinal
D)Frontal
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6
What are the three cardinal planes of the body?
A)Mediolateral, anteroposterior, longitudinal
B)Mediolateral, longitudinal, superior
C)Longitudinal, sagittal, frontal
D)Sagittal, frontal, transverse
A)Mediolateral, anteroposterior, longitudinal
B)Mediolateral, longitudinal, superior
C)Longitudinal, sagittal, frontal
D)Sagittal, frontal, transverse
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7
Movement away from the body's midline in the frontal plane, around an anteroposterior axis, is what type of movement?
A)Pronation
B)Extension
C)Adduction
D)Abduction
A)Pronation
B)Extension
C)Adduction
D)Abduction
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8
In what plane and axis does the movement of extension occur?
A)Sagittal plane, longitudinal axis
B)Frontal plane, mediolateral axis
C)Sagittal plane, mediolateral axis
D)Transverse plane, anteroposterior axis
A)Sagittal plane, longitudinal axis
B)Frontal plane, mediolateral axis
C)Sagittal plane, mediolateral axis
D)Transverse plane, anteroposterior axis
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9
What type of movement is a combination of flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction?
A)Circumduction
B)Dorsiflexion
C)Supination
D)Rotation
A)Circumduction
B)Dorsiflexion
C)Supination
D)Rotation
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10
Where does the movement of flexion occur?
A)In the sagittal plane, around the anteroposterior axis
B)In the transverse plane, around the mediolateral axis
C)In the sagittal plane, around the mediolateral axis
D)In the frontal plane, around the longitudinal axis
A)In the sagittal plane, around the anteroposterior axis
B)In the transverse plane, around the mediolateral axis
C)In the sagittal plane, around the mediolateral axis
D)In the frontal plane, around the longitudinal axis
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11
What is another term for the body orientation known as inferior?
A)Dorsal
B)Lateral
C)Cranial
D)Caudal
A)Dorsal
B)Lateral
C)Cranial
D)Caudal
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12
Which plane is known to divide the body into superior/inferior segments?
A)Sagittal
B)Transverse
C)Frontal
D)Longitudinal
A)Sagittal
B)Transverse
C)Frontal
D)Longitudinal
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13
What is an objective indication of a disease that is observed, discovered, or measured by a physician during examination?
A)Sign
B)Symptom
C)Complaint
D)Diagnostic
A)Sign
B)Symptom
C)Complaint
D)Diagnostic
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14
When discussing the segments of the body and their associated planes, where does the axis lie within that plane?
A)Parallel to the plane
B)Perpendicular to the plane
C)Diagonally through the plane
D)There is no reference between the plane and its axis
A)Parallel to the plane
B)Perpendicular to the plane
C)Diagonally through the plane
D)There is no reference between the plane and its axis
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15
What is a more commonly used term for cranial orientation?
A)Caudal
B)Anterior
C)Superior
D)Cephalic
A)Caudal
B)Anterior
C)Superior
D)Cephalic
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16
What does an implied consent form not provide?
A)Evidence that client was informed of purposes, procedures, and risks of exercise testing
B)Coverage for improper test administration due to accidental omissions
C)Written documentation of providing necessary information to the client prior to the testing
D)Information to the client so that they can make an informed decisions about participating in the exercise testing
A)Evidence that client was informed of purposes, procedures, and risks of exercise testing
B)Coverage for improper test administration due to accidental omissions
C)Written documentation of providing necessary information to the client prior to the testing
D)Information to the client so that they can make an informed decisions about participating in the exercise testing
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17
What movement is the opposite of adduction?
A)Conduction
B)Abduction
C)Pronation
D)Supination
A)Conduction
B)Abduction
C)Pronation
D)Supination
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18
Which of the following is not an important part of assessing a client's physical suitability for exercise testing and training?
A)Reviewing medical history
B)Assessing cardiac risk
C)Discussing fitness goals
D)Evaluating physical exam findings
A)Reviewing medical history
B)Assessing cardiac risk
C)Discussing fitness goals
D)Evaluating physical exam findings
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19
Flexion is a type of movement that performs what action?
A)Moves the part away from the midline of the body
B)Moves the part towards the midline of the body
C)Increases the angle of the joint
D)Decreases the angle of the joint
A)Moves the part away from the midline of the body
B)Moves the part towards the midline of the body
C)Increases the angle of the joint
D)Decreases the angle of the joint
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20
Which type of motion increases the angle of the moving joint?
A)Extension
B)Flexion
C)Adduction
D)Dorsiflexion
A)Extension
B)Flexion
C)Adduction
D)Dorsiflexion
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21
What movement occurs around a longitudinal axis in the transverse plane?
A)Circumduction
B)Rotation
C)Pronation
D)Supination
A)Circumduction
B)Rotation
C)Pronation
D)Supination
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22
What movement brings the sole of the foot toward the body's midline?
A)Dorsiflexion
B)Supination
C)Eversion
D)Inversion
A)Dorsiflexion
B)Supination
C)Eversion
D)Inversion
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23
Which of the following is not a bone that consists of several other bones fused together?
A)Ulna
B)Skull
C)Coccyx
D)Sacrum
A)Ulna
B)Skull
C)Coccyx
D)Sacrum
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24
What structure acts as the main axial support for the body?
A)Skull
B)Sternum
C)Ribs
D)Spine
A)Skull
B)Sternum
C)Ribs
D)Spine
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25
What is the main function of the annulus fibrosus?
A)Transmits forces evenly across the disc and deforms easily
B)Binds the vertebrae together and resists destructive forces to the spine
C)Provides a space for the spinal cord
D)Attracts and holds water within the structure
A)Transmits forces evenly across the disc and deforms easily
B)Binds the vertebrae together and resists destructive forces to the spine
C)Provides a space for the spinal cord
D)Attracts and holds water within the structure
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26
What is the function of the intervertebral discs?
A)Absorb shock and bear weight
B)Bear weight and provide hydration to the spinal cord
C)Prevent fusion of the vertebrae
D)Provide a fusion site for the sacrum
A)Absorb shock and bear weight
B)Bear weight and provide hydration to the spinal cord
C)Prevent fusion of the vertebrae
D)Provide a fusion site for the sacrum
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27
Which of the following movements is not a rotational one?
A)Dorsiflexion
B)Pronation
C)Supination
D)Rotation
A)Dorsiflexion
B)Pronation
C)Supination
D)Rotation
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28
Which of the following is a normal curvature of the spine directed in an anterior convexity?
A)Sacral
B)Scoliosis
C)Lumbar
D)Hyperlordosis
A)Sacral
B)Scoliosis
C)Lumbar
D)Hyperlordosis
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29
Which of the following is a normal, primary curve in the sagittal plane?
A)Sacral
B)Cervical
C)Lumbar
D)Lordosis
A)Sacral
B)Cervical
C)Lumbar
D)Lordosis
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30
What movement is known as "pointing the toes" in laymen's terms?
A)Pronation
B)Supination
C)Plantarflexion
D)Dorsiflexion
A)Pronation
B)Supination
C)Plantarflexion
D)Dorsiflexion
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31
How many thoracic vertebrae are found in the spine?
A)4
B)5
C)7
D)12
A)4
B)5
C)7
D)12
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32
Which of the following bones is not part of the axial skeleton?
A)Skull
B)Spine
C)Tibia
D)Sternum
A)Skull
B)Spine
C)Tibia
D)Sternum
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33
Which movement is actually an extension, but the name can be misleading if the anatomy is not well understood?
A)Dorsiflexion
B)Plantarflexion
C)Circumduction
D)Abduction
A)Dorsiflexion
B)Plantarflexion
C)Circumduction
D)Abduction
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34
What is not a function of the axial skeleton?
A)Supports and protects organs
B)Produces hormones for delivery throughout the body
C)Forms the longitudinal axis
D)Provides an attachment site for muscles
A)Supports and protects organs
B)Produces hormones for delivery throughout the body
C)Forms the longitudinal axis
D)Provides an attachment site for muscles
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35
What is the outer, fibrocartilaginous portion of intervertebral discs called?
A)Annulus fibrosus
B)Nucleus pulposus
C)Lumbar vertebra
D)Xiphoid process
A)Annulus fibrosus
B)Nucleus pulposus
C)Lumbar vertebra
D)Xiphoid process
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36
Which movement describes a motion that creates a cone shape?
A)Rotation
B)Pronation
C)Circumduction
D)Supination
A)Rotation
B)Pronation
C)Circumduction
D)Supination
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37
What type of curvature of the spine is developed as an infant progresses in weight bearing?
A)Scoliosis
B)Kyphosis
C)Primary
D)Secondary
A)Scoliosis
B)Kyphosis
C)Primary
D)Secondary
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38
Which movement can occur either towards or away from the body's midline?
A)Supination
B)Pronation
C)Circumduction
D)Rotation
A)Supination
B)Pronation
C)Circumduction
D)Rotation
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39
Eversion is described as what type of movement?
A)Turning the plantar aspect of the foot away from the body's midline
B)Turning the plantar aspect of the foot toward from the body's midline
C)Flexing the plantar aspect of the foot downward
D)Flexing the dorsal aspect of the foot upward
A)Turning the plantar aspect of the foot away from the body's midline
B)Turning the plantar aspect of the foot toward from the body's midline
C)Flexing the plantar aspect of the foot downward
D)Flexing the dorsal aspect of the foot upward
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40
How many bones make up the skull?
A)13
B)23
C)29
D)32
A)13
B)23
C)29
D)32
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41
Which of the following is not an anatomical part of the upper arm?
A)Humerus
B)Medial epicondyle
C)Lateral epicondyle
D)Acromion process
A)Humerus
B)Medial epicondyle
C)Lateral epicondyle
D)Acromion process
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42
What anatomical orientation refers to the fingers as compared to the shoulder?
A)Distal
B)Proximal
C)Anterior
D)Superior
A)Distal
B)Proximal
C)Anterior
D)Superior
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43
The inferior angle of the scapula is a landmark used for what purpose?
A)Locating correct placement for ECG electrodes
B)As a skinfold site for body fat assessment
C)To determine a client's frame size
D)Provides structural support to ribs
A)Locating correct placement for ECG electrodes
B)As a skinfold site for body fat assessment
C)To determine a client's frame size
D)Provides structural support to ribs
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44
What bones make up the appendicular skeleton?
A)Arms, legs, and spine
B)Arms, legs, skull, and pelvic girdle
C)Arms, legs, and pelvic girdle
D)Arms, legs, pectoral, and pelvic girdles
A)Arms, legs, and spine
B)Arms, legs, skull, and pelvic girdle
C)Arms, legs, and pelvic girdle
D)Arms, legs, pectoral, and pelvic girdles
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45
How many pairs of ribs are in the body?
A)5
B)7
C)12
D)24
A)5
B)7
C)12
D)24
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46
What is a connective tissue highly resistant to tensile and compressive forces?
A)Ligament
B)Tendon
C)Bone
D)Muscle
A)Ligament
B)Tendon
C)Bone
D)Muscle
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47
What is an abnormal curve of the spine that is an exaggerated anterior lumbar curvature?
A)Scoliosis
B)Hyperlordosis
C)Hyperkyphosis
D)Xiphosis
A)Scoliosis
B)Hyperlordosis
C)Hyperkyphosis
D)Xiphosis
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48
What forearm processes are necessary for locating the radial pulse?
A)Olecranon and radial styloid processes
B)Olecranon and ulnar styloid processes
C)Ulnar and brachial styloid processes
D)Ulnar and radial styloid processes
A)Olecranon and radial styloid processes
B)Olecranon and ulnar styloid processes
C)Ulnar and brachial styloid processes
D)Ulnar and radial styloid processes
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49
What part of the appendicular skeleton is important for locating the proper placement of electrodes for ECG and defibrillation?
A)Scapulae
B)Clavicle
C)Sternum
D)Femur
A)Scapulae
B)Clavicle
C)Sternum
D)Femur
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50
What bones compose the forearm?
A)Humerus and radius
B)Radius and ulna
C)Ulna and humerus
D)Clavicle and ulna
A)Humerus and radius
B)Radius and ulna
C)Ulna and humerus
D)Clavicle and ulna
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51
Which ribs do not articulate to anything?
A)Rib pairs 1-4
B)Rib pairs 5-7
C)Rib pair 8-10
D)Rib pair 11 and 12
A)Rib pairs 1-4
B)Rib pairs 5-7
C)Rib pair 8-10
D)Rib pair 11 and 12
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52
What part of the sternum is an important landmark that should be palpated in order to locate correct placement of the hands during CPR?
A)Xiphoid process
B)Sternal angle
C)Manubrium
D)Carotid artery
A)Xiphoid process
B)Sternal angle
C)Manubrium
D)Carotid artery
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53
Which of the following is not a part of the sternum?
A)Xiphoid process
B)Body
C)Kyphosis
D)Manubrium
A)Xiphoid process
B)Body
C)Kyphosis
D)Manubrium
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54
What anatomical factor defines a rib as a "true" rib?
A)Whether or not it is made of bone (versus cartilage)
B)Whether or not it articulates directly to the sternum
C)Whether it articulates to the sternum or the xiphoid process
D)All the ribs are true ribs
A)Whether or not it is made of bone (versus cartilage)
B)Whether or not it articulates directly to the sternum
C)Whether it articulates to the sternum or the xiphoid process
D)All the ribs are true ribs
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55
What structure proximally articulates with the glenoid fossa and distally with the ulna and radius?
A)Clavicle
B)Scapulae
C)Phalanges
D)Humerus
A)Clavicle
B)Scapulae
C)Phalanges
D)Humerus
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56
What is the importance of the intercostal space between the true ribs?
A)Locates correct placement for electrocardiography electrodes
B)Locates correct placement of hands during cardio-pulmonary resuscitation
C)Locates correct placement for performing a tracheotomy
D)This intercostal space has no more significance than the other intercostal spaces
A)Locates correct placement for electrocardiography electrodes
B)Locates correct placement of hands during cardio-pulmonary resuscitation
C)Locates correct placement for performing a tracheotomy
D)This intercostal space has no more significance than the other intercostal spaces
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57
Which bones make up the pelvic girdle?
A)Ilium, ischium, pubis, sacrum, and coccyx
B)Ilium, ischium, sacrum, and femur
C)Pubis, sacrum, coccyx, and femur
D)Spine, hips, and upper thigh
A)Ilium, ischium, pubis, sacrum, and coccyx
B)Ilium, ischium, sacrum, and femur
C)Pubis, sacrum, coccyx, and femur
D)Spine, hips, and upper thigh
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58
What part of the sternum is important to help locate paddle placement for defibrillation?
A)Xiphoid process
B)Sternal angle
C)Manubrium
D)Carotid artery
A)Xiphoid process
B)Sternal angle
C)Manubrium
D)Carotid artery
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59
What is the description of the anatomical locating term "medial"?
A)The anatomy referred to is relatively closer to the body's midline
B)The anatomy referred to is relatively further from the body's midline
C)The anatomy referred to is relatively closer to the head
D)The anatomy referred to is relatively further from the head
A)The anatomy referred to is relatively closer to the body's midline
B)The anatomy referred to is relatively further from the body's midline
C)The anatomy referred to is relatively closer to the head
D)The anatomy referred to is relatively further from the head
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60
What upper body anatomy is measured for estimating frame size?
A)Humerus
B)Radius
C)Epicondyles
D)Phalanges
A)Humerus
B)Radius
C)Epicondyles
D)Phalanges
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61
Which type of bone contains an epiphysis at each end containing red bone marrow?
A)Long
B)Short
C)Flat
D)Irregular
A)Long
B)Short
C)Flat
D)Irregular
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62
Which structure actually facilitates the exchange of gases?
A)Lobules
B)Primary bronchioles
C)Secondary bronchioles
D)Alveoli and alveolar ducts
A)Lobules
B)Primary bronchioles
C)Secondary bronchioles
D)Alveoli and alveolar ducts
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63
What unique type of joint is the thumb?
A)Cartilaginous
B)Synovial
C)Immovable
D)Fibrous
A)Cartilaginous
B)Synovial
C)Immovable
D)Fibrous
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64
What is not a general shape of bones found within the human skeleton?
A)Specialized
B)Long
C)Flat
D)Irregular
A)Specialized
B)Long
C)Flat
D)Irregular
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65
What is the major respiratory function of the nose and sinuses?
A)Provide olfactory feedback
B)Provide air to the glottis for speech and sound formation
C)Warm, filter, and moisten air
D)Protect, support, and maintain an open airway
A)Provide olfactory feedback
B)Provide air to the glottis for speech and sound formation
C)Warm, filter, and moisten air
D)Protect, support, and maintain an open airway
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66
What structure is a muscular - walled vessel that carries blood and eventually becomes smaller in size to become capillaries?
A)Vein
B)Arteriole
C)Atria
D)Artery
A)Vein
B)Arteriole
C)Atria
D)Artery
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67
What anatomical structure functions to maintain an open airway, prevent over - expansion of the respiratory system, and allow food passage?
A)Trachea
B)Larynx
C)Pharynx
D)Diaphragm
A)Trachea
B)Larynx
C)Pharynx
D)Diaphragm
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68
What type of tissue is generally not exposed outside the body and provides support and protection?
A)Blood
B)Connective
C)Keratin
D)Epidermal
A)Blood
B)Connective
C)Keratin
D)Epidermal
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69
The trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli are part of what anatomical tract?
A)Upper respiratory tract
B)Lower respiratory tract
C)Respiratory tract
D)Cardiovascular tract
A)Upper respiratory tract
B)Lower respiratory tract
C)Respiratory tract
D)Cardiovascular tract
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70
What are the two types of bone tissue?
A)Compact and cancellous
B)Compact and dense
C)Compact and cortical
D)Dense and cancellous
A)Compact and cancellous
B)Compact and dense
C)Compact and cortical
D)Dense and cancellous
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71
What anatomical structure provides storage for calcium salts in order to maintain correct concentrations of calcium and phosphate ions in the body?
A)Blood
B)Bone
C)Tooth dentin
D)Pancreas
A)Blood
B)Bone
C)Tooth dentin
D)Pancreas
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72
What is the correct order of flow through cardiac structures for blood from the lungs?
A)Superior and inferior vena cava, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonic semilunar valve, pulmonary arteries, lungs, systemic circulation
B)Right pulmonary vein, right atrium, bicuspid valve, right ventricle, aortic semilunar valve, systemic circulation
C)Left pulmonary vein, left atrium, bicuspid valve, left ventricle, aortic semilunar valve, ascending aorta, systemic circulation
D)Ascending aorta, aortic semilunar valve, left ventricle, bicuspid valve, left atrium, systemic circulation
A)Superior and inferior vena cava, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonic semilunar valve, pulmonary arteries, lungs, systemic circulation
B)Right pulmonary vein, right atrium, bicuspid valve, right ventricle, aortic semilunar valve, systemic circulation
C)Left pulmonary vein, left atrium, bicuspid valve, left ventricle, aortic semilunar valve, ascending aorta, systemic circulation
D)Ascending aorta, aortic semilunar valve, left ventricle, bicuspid valve, left atrium, systemic circulation
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73
What type of joint is necessary to accommodate circular movements?
A)Gliding
B)Hinge
C)Ball and socket
D)Pivot
A)Gliding
B)Hinge
C)Ball and socket
D)Pivot
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74
Which of the following anatomical parts is not part of the upper respiratory tract?
A)Nasal cavity
B)Nose
C)Larynx
D)Lungs
A)Nasal cavity
B)Nose
C)Larynx
D)Lungs
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75
What structure covers the actin bridging site during rest and is attached to troponin?
A)Myosin
B)Tropomyosin
C)Myofibrils
D)Myofilaments
A)Myosin
B)Tropomyosin
C)Myofibrils
D)Myofilaments
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76
What characteristics of synovial joints help in their movement?
A)Their fibrous connections
B)Membranes containing lubricating fluid
C)Networks of tubules
D)A coverage of articular cartilage
A)Their fibrous connections
B)Membranes containing lubricating fluid
C)Networks of tubules
D)A coverage of articular cartilage
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77
What anatomical location has flat bones?
A)Wrist
B)Ankle
C)Skull
D)Vertebrae
A)Wrist
B)Ankle
C)Skull
D)Vertebrae
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78
Which of the following is not a type of bone tissue?
A)Cortical
B)Spongy
C)Dense
D)Dermal
A)Cortical
B)Spongy
C)Dense
D)Dermal
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79
Where does growth of immature long bones occur?
A)Epiphysis
B)Diaphysis
C)Trabecular
D)Epiphyseal plate
A)Epiphysis
B)Diaphysis
C)Trabecular
D)Epiphyseal plate
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80
Which cardiovascular structure marks the boundary between the left and right ventricles?
A)Interventricular sulcus
B)Coronary sulcus
C)Apex
D)Auricle
A)Interventricular sulcus
B)Coronary sulcus
C)Apex
D)Auricle
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