Deck 1: Pharmacy Technician Certification

Question 1

When discussing ophthalmic solutions, which of the following is false?
I. Ophthalmic solutions can be used with contact lenses in place.
II. Patients should pull out the lower eyelid to form a pocket to place ophthalmic drops.
III. Different ophthalmic preparations should be applied at least 10-20 minutes apart.
IV. Ophthalmic solutions have no systemic effects.

A)I only
B)III only
C)I, II, and III
D)I and IV only

Answer 1

I and IV only

Question 2

Of the following lab values, which would be true in a case of iron deficiency anemia?

A)Decreased MCV and an increased RDW
B)Decreased MCV and an decreased RDW
C)Increased MCV and an increased RDW
D)Decreased MCV and an increased MCHC

Answer 2

Decreased MCV and an increased RDW

Question 3

Which of the following drug classes are used to prevent and treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?
I. Immunosuppressants
II. Gamma amino butyric acid
III. Corticosteroids
IV. Macrolides

A)I and III only
B)II and III only
C)III and IV only
D)All of the above

Answer 3

I and III only

Question 4

Which of the following is an anxiolytic?

A)Buspirone
B)Budenoside
C)Busulfan
D)Bumetanide

Question 5

Which of the following is an opioid-like agonist?

A)Phenobarbital
B)Propoxyphene
C)Diltiazem
D)Pemoline

Question 6

What is ranitidine used to treat?

A)Grave's disease
B)Erectile dysfunction
C)Duodenal or gastric ulcers
D)Hypertension

Question 7

Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for the use of itraconazole?

A)Fungal meningitis
B)A history of drug abuse
C)A history of diabetes
D)A history of ulcerative disease

Question 8

Which of the following are not signs/symptoms/complications of lupus-like syndrome?

A)Joint paint
B)Fever
C)Red, scaly, macular rash
D)Arrhythmia

Question 9

A 56-year-old female patient has a diagnosis of GERD, mild hypertension, hyperthyroidism, hypercholesterolemia, and Type II diabetes of 5 years duration. Medications include metformin, glyburide, propylthiouracil, lansoprazole, atorvastatin, and hydrochlorothiazide. Recent labs report an A1c of 9.8%, TSH of 2.7, Hgb of 12.2 and total cholesterol of 130mg/dL. A physical exam reveals a blood pressure of 128/76 and a resting heart rate of 98. The patient is complaining of muscle cramps, fatigue, and thirst. Which of the following medications may need adjustment?

A)Metformin and glyburide
B)Propylthiouracil
C)Atorvastatin
D)Metformin, glyburide, and atorvastatin

Question 10

What is the mechanism of action of loratadine (Alavert/Claritin)?

A)Loratadine is a 1st generation H-2 antagonist.
B)Loratadine is a 2nd generation H-1agonist.
C)Loratadine is a 2nd generation H-1 antagonist.
D)Loratadine is a 1st generation dopamine-2 antagonist.

Question 11

Which of the following chemical modifications would likely increase the water solubility of a drug?

A)Conversion of an anhydrous form to a tri-hydrate
B)Conversion from a crystalline to an amorphous form
C)The addition of a lipophilic side group
D)The removal of a hydroxyl group

Question 12

Droperidol is used to treat ______ and is contraindicated with/in _____.

A)Vertigo, orthostatic hypotension
B)Perioperative nausea and vomiting, known or suspected increased QT interval
C)Opioid withdrawal, muscle spasms
D)Rheumatoid arthritis, known hypersensitivity

Question 13

Ipratropium is a _____ used to treat _____ and which rarely has the adverse effect of inducing ______.

A)Bisphosphonate, osteopenia, tachycardia
B)Bronchodilator/anti-cholinergic, COPD and asthma, arrythmias
C)Bronchodilator/cholinergic agonist, COPD and asthma, arrythmias
D)Serotonin antagonist, seizure disorders, tachycardia

Question 14

Which of the following are possible adverse effects of ramipril (Altace)?
I. Heart failure and hyperkalemia
II. Angioedema and bronchospasm
III. Respiratory depression and coma
IV. Paradoxical acid reflux and esophagitis

A)I and II only
B)II and III only
C)I and III only
D)All of the above are possible adverse effects.

Question 15

Which of the following brand names is not correctly matched with its generic name?

A)Sonata-Zaleplon
B)Accolate-Zafirlukast
C)Sanctura-Trospium
D)Levitra-Venlafaxine

Question 16

Which of the following is a "high-alert" drug meaning, they can cause significant harm when used in error?

A)Amiodorone, intravenous
B)Tricalcium phosphate, PO
C)Fentenyl, transdermal
D)Gabapentin, PO

Question 17

Rifapentine is a(n) _____ used to treat ______ and which rarely has the adverse effect of inducing _______.

A)Anti-tubercular, mycobacterium infections, hematologic abnormalities, pancreatitis and hyperkalemia
B)Atypical anti-psychotic, mania and multiple personality disorder, arrhythmias.
C)Antibiotic fluroquinone, ophthalmic infections, hypomagnesemia.
D)Dopamine antagonist, Parkinson's disease and seizure disorders, suicidal ideation.

Question 18

A patient taking sulfasalazine should be told which of the following?
I. Take sulfasalazine with food
II. Sulfasalazine may turn tears, urine, and sweat orange
III. Sulfasalazine may induce photosensitivity
IV. Take sulfasalazine on an empty stomach

A)I and II only
B)I, II, and III only
C)II, III, and IV only
D)II and IV only

Question 19

Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in a pregnant woman?
I. Isotretoin
II. Reloxifene
III. Misoprostol
IV. Loperamide

A)I only
B)I, II, and III only
C)I and II only
D)I, II, and IV only

Question 20

Which of the following forms is meclizine available in? I. IM injectable
II) IV injectable
III) Tablets
IV) Topical cream

A)I only
B)I, II, and III only
C)III only
D)All the listed forms are available.

Question 21

A patient arrives and asks you to re-fill his Ambien prescription. There are no refills left. Which is the best approach for you to take?

A)Tell him to go and get another appointment with his doctor. You cannot do anything for him.
B)Give him 1 or 2 pills-he looks tired.
C)Call the prescriber and determine whether the prescriber wishes to refill.
D)Both A and B are correct.

Question 22

Dimenhydrinate is used as an________?

A)Antihistamine
B)Antiarrhythmic
C)Antiulcer agent
D)Anticholinergic

Question 23

Which of the following are possible signs/symptoms/complications of lansoprazole?
I. GI hemorrhage
II. Cerebrovascular accident
III. Asthma
IV. Myocardial infarction

A)All of the above
B)None of the above
C)I only
D)I and III only

Question 24

What do IND and NDA stand for respectively?

A)Interdependent Nerve Disorder, Neurological Disease Activity
B)Investigation Network Delivery, New Drug Application
C)Investigation New Drug, Neurological Dosing Accuracy
D)Investigation New Drug, New Drug Application

Question 25

Tizanidine is a(n) _______ used to treat ______ and which rarely has the adverse effect of inducing _______.

A)Centrally acting alpha-adrenergic agonist, spasticity, hypotension
B)Antidepressant, seasonal affective disorder, bradycardia
C)Anticonvulsant, partial seizures, neutropenia/leukopenia
D)Serotonin agonist, seizure disorders, tachycardia

Question 26

Which of the following forms is erythromycin available in?
I. Oral suspension; 200 mg/5 mL and 400mg/5 mL
II. Powder for injection; 500 mg, 1 g
III. Tablet; 200, 250, 333, 400 and 500 mg
IV. Capsule; 250 mg
V. Topical ointment; 2%

A)I and V only
B)I, II, and III only
C)III only
D)All of the above

Question 27

What is the mechanism of action of gentamicin?

A)It is an aminoglycoside and is bacteriocidal against Gram (-) bacteria by irreversibly binding the 30S subunit of bacterial ribosomes.
B)It is a 4th generation cephalosporin and has broad activity against both Gram (+) and Gram (-) bacteria. It blocks cell wall synthesis and cell division.
C)It is a monobactam, killing Gram (-) bacteria by binding to penicillin-binding protein 3.
D)It is an aminoglycoside and is bacteriocidal against Gram (-) bacteria by irreversibly binding the 50S subunit of bacterial ribosomes

Question 28

Which of the following is likely to be true of a Phase I clinical trial?

A)A Phase I clinical trial may be a retrospective trial of 2000 patients.
B)A Phase I clinical trial is often opened to a small group of people with a number of different types of cancer.
C)A Phase I clinical trial involves many clinical centers and large numbers of patients.
D)A Phase I clinical trial is only completed when every patient is cured.

Question 29

Which of the following conditions would call for the use of flumazenil?
I. Benzodiazepine overdose
II. H1N1 infection
III. Community acquired viral pneumonia

A)I only
B)II only
C)III only
D)None of the above

Question 30

Which of the following forms is drotrecogin alfa available in?
I. Oral suspension; 200 mg/5 mL and 400mg/5 mL
II. Lyophilized powder for injection; 5 and 20 mg
III. Tablet; 200, 250, and 500 mg
IV. Capsule; 250 and 500 mg

A)I and IV only
B)I, II, and III only
C)II only
D)All of the above

Question 31

Which of the following are potential agents used in the treatment of refractory Crohn's disease?

A)Azothiaprine or methotrexate
B)Filgrastim
C)Mercaptopurine
D)Levonorgestrel

Question 32

What is Xifaxan used to treat?

A)Traveler's diarrhea caused by Escherichia coli
B)Anxiety attacks
C)Thoracic kyphosis
D)Seizure disorders

Question 33

Metronidazole is known to have a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol. Which would be the most appropriate form for dosing metronidazole?

A)As a tincture
B)As a spirit
C)As a suspension
D)As a fluid extract

Question 34

Which of the following drugs is a combination product?
I. Maxzide
II. Vytorin
III. Lomotil

A)I only
B)III only
C)I, II, and III
D)I and II only

Question 35

For the following chemotherapeutic agents, determine the incorrect combination of agent / pharmacologic class.
I. Tacrine / acetylcholine agonist
II. Atomoxetine / SSRI
III. Quetiapine / dibenzothiazepine
IV. Clindamycin / macrolide

A)I and II only
B)II and IV only
C)I and IV only
D)I and III only