Deck 2: Orthopedic and Podiatric Conditions and Diseases

Question 1

The clinical name for the classic form of "club foot" is?

A)Talipes equinovarus
B)Hallux valgus
C)Osteoarthritis
D)Tarsal tunnel syndrome

Answer 1

Talipes equinovarus

Question 2

A decrease in alpha-1 antitrypsin is seen in which of the following diseases?

A)Asthma
B)Chronic bronchitis
C)Emphysema
D)Pneumonia

Answer 2

Emphysema

Question 3

Hemoptysis is a clinical symptom of each of the following diseases except:

A)Pneumonia
B)Tuberculosis
C)Melanoma
D)Bronchitis

Answer 3

Melanoma

Question 4

Ascites is a characteristic finding in of each of the following disease conditions except:

A)Pancreatitis
B)Pneumonia
C)Congestive heart failure
D)Constrictive pericarditis

Question 5

Which of the following conditions results in ischemic necrosis of the head of femur because of an interruption of blood supply from the medial femoral circumflex artery?

A)Fracture of distal femur
B)Pertrochanteric fracture
C)Fracture of the neck of femur
D)Fracture of shaft of femur

Question 6

When a stress fracture occurs in the foot, it is a fatigue fracture of which of the following foot bones?

A)Tarsals
B)Metatarsals
C)Phalanges
D)Interphalangeal joints

Question 7

Shin splint is a painful condition of which of the following compartments of the leg?

A)Medical
B)Lateral
C)Anterior
D)Posterior

Question 8

All of the following conditions may result in a Tarsal tunnel syndrome except:

A)Obesity
B)Flat feet
C)Repetitive stress with activities
D)Diabetic foot

Question 9

Which of the following foot arches is/are associated with flat foot?

A)Medial longitudinal arch
B)Lateral longitudinal arch
C)Transverse arch
D)Both transverse and lateral longitudinal arches

Question 10

What is the basic difference between hallux valgus and hallux varus?

A)Both names refer to the same condition
B)Hallux valgus is lateral deviation of the big toe, whereas hallux varus is a medial deviation of the big toe
C)Hallux valgus is medial deviation of the big toe, whereas hallux varus is a lateral deviation of the big toe
D)Hallux valgus usually occurs due to foot gangrene

Question 11

Which of the following organisms is a causative agent for hand, foot, and mouth disease?

A)EBV
B)HCV
C)Herpes virus
D)Coxsackie A virus

Question 12

Patients of which of the following neurological conditions often demonstrate mild bradykinesia and "magnetic gait"?

A)Epilepsy
B)Normal pressure hydrocephalus
C)Stroke
D)Meningitis

Question 13

Meissner's corpuscles are found most prominently in all of the following locations except:

A)Lips
B)Fingertips
C)Sole of the feet
D)Back of the wrists

Question 14

Clinical signs of acromegaly include all of the following except:

A)Coarse facies
B)Enlarged tongue
C)Increased size of hands and feet
D)Microgenitalia

Question 15

Which of the following diseases produces an asymmetric distribution of joint swelling in the distal interphalangeal joints of the hands and feet?

A)Psoriatic arthritis
B)Osteoarthritis
C)Rheumatoid arthritis
D)Pott's disease

Question 16

Which of the following disorders is associated with "rocker bottom feet"?

A)Down's syndrome
B)Edwards syndrome
C)Chronic myelogenous Leukemia
D)Rickets

Question 17

Which of the following disorders can cause subcutaneous nodule formation and is associated with hyperuricemia?

A)Rickets
B)Gout
C)Rheumatoid arthritis
D)Pott's disease

Question 18

Which of the following groups is at increased risk of developing osteoporosis?

A)Premenopausal women
B)Postmenopausal women
C)Adolescent girls
D)Young males

Question 19

Which of the following is not a feature of Paget's disease of the bone?

A)Excessive bone resorption
B)Alkaline phosphatase activityis decreased
C)Patients can present with bone pain, fractures, deformity, and sensory deficits
D)Bone is replaced by a soft, disorganized bone matrix with a mosaic pattern

Question 20

Rheumatic fever is characterized by all of the following except:

A)Fever
B)Carditis
C)It may follow group A streptococcal pharyngitis
D)Chronic renal failure

Question 21

Which of the following features is not found in osteoporosis?

A)Increased susceptibility to fractures
B)Increased bone mineral density
C)Vertebral compression fractures
D)Normal calcium, phosphate, and alkaline phosphatase levels in blood

Question 22

Osteitis fibrosa cystic is a distinctive bone manifestation of:

A)Hypothyroidism
B)Grave's disease
C)Acromegaly
D)Hyperparathyroidism

Question 23

Which of the following is not a common feature of osteosarcoma?

A)Fractures are generally seen in elderly males
B)Lytic lesion in the proximal tibia or distal femur
C)Lytic lesion in the distal femur
D)Lytic lesion with or without calcification

Question 24

Which of the following antibiotics are considered as effective agents in patients with early rheumatoid arthritis?

A)2nd generation cephalosporins
B)3rd generation cephalosporins
C)Tetracyclines
D)Macrolides

Question 25

Rheumatoid arthritis is an example of which of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions?

A)Type I hypersensitivity reactions
B)Type II hypersensitivity reactions
C)Type III hypersensitivity reactions
D)Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

Question 26

Which of the following diseases is not an autoimmune disease?

A)Hashimoto's thyroiditis
B)Rheumatoid arthritis
C)Osteoarthritis
D)Vitiligo

Question 27

Obesity, genetic profile, and aging all contribute to the development of Type II diabetes. Of the following, which is the most important additive factor for these three conditions in the development of Type II diabetes?

A)Elevated hepatic ketogenesis
B)Elevated pancreatic glucagon secretion
C)Impaired renal clearance of glucose
D)Muscle resistance to insulin

Question 28

Which of the following findings is associated with Marfan's syndrome?

A)Family history in 100% of the patients
B)Upward subluxation of the lenses
C)Mental retardation
D)Malar rash

Question 29

Which of the following pathologic disorders results from a deficiency of pituitary antidiuretic hormone (ADH) (arginine vasopressin)?

A)Diabetes Mellitus
B)Diabetes Insipidus
C)Gestational diabetes
D)All types of diabetes

Question 30

Which of the following diseases manifests as an arthritis that occurs most often in young men and is accompanied by low back pain and stiffness?

A)Osteoarthritis
B)Rheumatoid arthritis
C)Osteomyelitis
D)Ankylosing spondylitis

Question 31

Which of the following diseases is not considered a common cause of lower gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding?

A)Hemorrhoids
B)Anal fissure
C)Carcinoma of the colon
D)Gallstones

Question 32

Sleep disturbance is a characteristic symptom associated with which of the following disorders?

A)Fibromyalgia
B)Ankylosing spondylitis
C)Rheumatoid arthritis
D)Diabetes mellitus

Question 33

Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by all of the following clinical findings except:

A)Hypercalcemia
B)Hypophosphatemia,
C)Decreased urinary calcium excretion
D)Increase in serum parathormone level

Question 34

Asthma is typically characterized by all of the following signs except:

A)Bronchoconstriction
B)Bronchospasm
C)Short expiratory phase
D)Retention of carbon dioxide

Question 35

Which of the following is not a complication of diabetes mellitus?

A)Retinopathy
B)Nephropathy
C)Neuropathy
D)Urinary incontinence

Question 36

All of the following are common causes of "intoeing" except:

A)Abducted great toe
B)Metatarsus adductus
C)Medial tibial torsion
D)Femoral anteversion

Question 37

Which of the following disorders is often the earliest clinical syndrome seen in children who have sickle cell anemia?

A)Hand and foot disease
B)Acute sickle dactylitis
C)Rickets
D)Paget's bone disease

Question 38

Which of the following conditions is a common cause of Osgood-Schlatter?

A)Inflammation of the quadrate tubercle
B)Inflammation of the tibial tubercle
C)Inflammation of the popliteus
D)Inflammation of the medial meniscus

Question 39

If a football player in the emergency room displays a positive anterior drawer test that becomes negative if the knee is internally or externally rotated, which of the following has ruptured?

A)Anterior cruciate ligament
B)Fibula
C)Fibular (lateral) collateral ligament
D)Posterior cruciate ligament

Question 40

Common imaging findings associated with osteoarthritis include all of the following except:

A)Widening of the joint space
B)Sclerosis
C)Presence of osteophytesq
D)Subchondral bone formation

Question 41

Which of the following is the organism that is most commonly responsible for osteomyelitis in patients with sickle cell disease?

A)Streptococcus pyogenes
B)Salmonella
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Question 42

Which of the following statements best defines the cause of myasthenia gravis?

A)Acetylcholine synthesis in motor neurons is impaired
B)Acetylcholinesterase synthesis is inhibited
C)Autoantibodies destroy cholinergic receptors at the postsynaptic membrane, preventing binding of acetylcholine
D)Neurotransmitter release is impaired at the presynaptic membrane of the neuromuscular junction

Question 43

Which of the following conditions is a common complication in Marfan's syndrome?

A)Pulmonary stenosis
B)Ventricular septal defect
C)Pulmonary hypertension
D)Aortic root dilatation

Question 44

Which of the following diseases will result in left ventricular hypertrophy?

A)Aortic valve stenosis
B)Mitral valve stenosis
C)Pulmonary valve regurgitation
D)Tricuspid valve regurgitation

Question 45

Which of the following diseases is a progressive neuromuscular disorder that is characterized by skeletal muscle fatigue, muscular weakness, and a decrease in the muscle membrane acetylcholine receptors?

A)Myasthenia gravis
B)Multiple sclerosis
C)SLE
D)Parkinson's disease

Question 46

Which of the following diseases is most commonly linked to hyperthyroidism and is an autoimmune disorder?

A)Diabetes insipidus
B)Hyperaldosteronism
C)Cushing's syndrome
D)Grave's disease

Question 47

The disorder referred to as macrocytic anemia is caused by a deficiency of which of the following vitamins?

A)Ascorbate
B)Biotin
C)Folate
D)Niacin

Question 48

Which of the following structures is the hardest calcified tissue in the body?

A)Enamel
B)Cementum
C)Cartilage
D)Dental pulp

Question 49

Which of the following statements does not reflect a benefit of using compression bandages after surgery?

A)They prevent the re-accumulation of lymphatic fluid.
B)They enhance the efficiency of the muscle and joint pumps.
C)They ensure proper healing.
D)They can be configured so that the patient can easily remove the bandage after it is applied.

Question 50

The laboratory findings of anemia, increased alkaline phosphatase, and increased urinary hydroxyproline are frequently seen in:

A)Paget disease
B)Fibrous dysplasia
C)Osteoporosis
D)Osteochondrosis

Question 51

Each of the following classifications of fractures is correctly matched with its definition except:

A)Greenstick ? bone cracks through one side only
B)Comminuted ? bone is crushed into many pieces
C)Open ? bone pierces skin
D)Complete ? bone bends but does not break

Question 52

Which of the following changes will most likely reduce the signs and symptoms of osteoarthritis?

A)Avoiding exercise
B)Restricting caffeine
C)Abstaining from alcohol
D)Reducing weight

Question 53

Which of the following signs indicates a developing infection in a patient who has had an open fracture?

A)Purulent drainage at the site
B)Decreased sensation distal to the site
C)Petechiae on the upper thorax
D)Decreased circulation distal to the site

Question 54

Which of the following signs or symptoms indicates a fat embolus in a patient who has just had repair of a femur fracture?

A)Weak pedal pulses
B)Chest pain
C)Cold feet
D)Poor leg sensations

Question 55

Which of the following signs or symptoms is not indicative of a complication of fat embolism after repair of a femur fracture?

A)Apprehension
B)Tachypnea
C)Cyanosis
D)Bradycardia

Question 56

If a female patient has chronic dermatitis involving the neck, face, and antecubital creases and also has a strong family history of varied allergy disorders, which type of dermatitis does she most likely have?

A)Contact dermatitis
B)Atopic dermatitis
C)Eczema
D)Dermatitis medicamentosa

Question 57

A young patient is in the hospital with his left leg in Buck's traction. Why it is important to place a footplate on the affected side at the bottom of the bed?

A)Anchor the traction
B)Prevent foot drop
C)Keep the patient from sliding down in bed
D)Prevent pressure areas on the foot

Question 58

Foot gangrene is a common complication of which of the following disorders?

A)Congestive heart failure
B)Diabetes mellitus
C)Anemia
D)Polycythemia

Question 59

Which of the following bacteria are the most common pathogens responsible for causing diabetic foot infection?

A)Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)E) Coli
C)Clostridium species
D)Staphylococcus aureus

Question 60

Which of the following therapies/measures are considered the treatment of choice for the management of venous stasis ulcers of the lower extremities?

A)Oral antibiotics
B)Radiotherapy
C)Sclerotherapy
D)Compressive contact dressings

Question 61

Which of the following image-scanning techniques will not cause harmful radiation exposure to the patient?

A)CT scan
B)Magnetic resonance imaging
C)Xeroradiography
D)Thalium scan

Question 62

Which of the following agencies determines the eligibility of podiatric services for payment under Medicare?

A)Official insurance body
B)Official podiatric medical association
C)American Podiatric Medical Association
D)Center for Medicare & Medicaid Services

Question 63

Considering an Austin bunionectomy, which of the following podiatric surgical apparatuses are considered the best means for the alignment and compression?

A)Cancellous screws
B)Cerclage wire
C)Orthosorb pins
D)Threaded Kirschner wire

Question 64

Which of the following limb joints is most frequently involved in the inflammatory arthritis associated with hemophilia?

A)Shoulder
B)Hip
C)Knee
D)Metatarsophalangeal

Question 65

Which of the following complications could result from the presence of chronic varicose ulcer over the medial malleolus?

A)Squamous cell carcinoma
B)Melanoma
C)Neurofibroma
D)Stroke

Question 66

Which of the following factors is most frequently responsible for the yellow discoloration of an X-Ray film?

A)Flaws in fixation
B)Poor raw material used
C)Bad light exposure
D)Errors in development

Question 67

If a patient suffers from Lyme disease, which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition?

A)Borrelia burgdorferi
B)Streptococcus pyrogens
C)Bacilus anthracis
D)Enterococcus faecalis

Question 68

Which of the following strategies is not effective for the prevention of Lyme disease?

A)Insect repellant on the skin and clothes when in a Lyme endemic area
B)Long sleeved shirts and long pants
C)Prophylactic antibiotic therapy prior to anticipated exposure to ticks
D)Careful examination of skin and hair for ticks following anticipated exposure

Question 69

As a practicing podiatrist, which of the following strategies represents the most effective way to limit infection?

A)Limiting the number of prescribed medications
B)Performing a thorough physical examination
C)Taking a comprehensive medical history
D)Ordering suitable investigations

Question 70

Considering podiatric surgeries, which of the following bacteria are the most frequently isolated bacteria in the post-surgical infections?

A)Streptococcus species
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Clostridium species

Question 71

Which of the following pathologies typically causes true acquired clubbing of the fingernails?

A)Bronchial carcinoma
B)Osteoarthritis
C)Rheumatoid arthritis
D)Crohn's disease

Question 72

A lesion due to which of the following pathologies characteristically shows a "soap bubble" appearance on the 5th metatarsal on the X-ray film?

A)Squamous cell carcinoma
B)Giant cell tumor
C)Ewing's sarcoma
D)Unicameral bone cyst

Question 73

Which of the following is not a typical clinical finding in pulmonary embolism?

A)Dyspnea
B)Slow breathing
C)Chest pain
D)Anxiety and nervousness

Question 74

Regarding ankle injuries, which of the following conditions occurs when the foot inverts or turns inward?

A)Medial ankle sprain
B)Lateral ankle sprain
C)Occult ankle injury
D)Ankle fracture

Question 75

Which of the following conditions may result in numbness and pain at the ankle?

A)Neuropraxia
B)Fracture
C)Tendon injury
D)Ankle sprain

Question 76

Which of the following statements is not true of the medial ankle sprain?

A)This occurs when the ankle turns outward or rotates
B)These injuries are the most common ankle injuries
C)They often involve tendon or bone requiring a period of immobilization
D)The medial ankle ligaments form a strong complex ligament called the deltoid ligament

Question 77

Regarding various foot disorders, which of the following statements is not true about bunions?

A)The bunion is also called hallux valgus
B)They affect the bones and joints associated with the great toe
C)It is one of the most common deformities of the forefoot
D)The condition is often acute

Question 78

Which of the following imaging methods is often used as an effective tool to diagnose foot bunions?

A)CT scan
B)MRI
C)X-Ray
D)Ultrasound

Question 79

Complications of bunionectomy include all of the following except:

A)Infection of soft tissue and/or bone
B)Irritation from fixation pins or screws
C)Nerve entrapment, reaction to the foreign material (suture material, pins or screws),
D)Abnormally soft greater toe

Question 80

All of the following conditions may cause pain at the great toe joint except:

A)Arthritis of the first metatarsal-phalangeal joint
B)Injury to the soft tissue structures around the first metatarsal-phalangeal joint
C)Fracture of the great toe or first metatarsal
D)Wearing fitted shoes with wider fore end (front)