Question 1

Prescription sleep aids act on which receptors?

Accepted Answer

Prescription sleep aids typically act on GABA receptors in the brain, enhancing the effects of this neurotransmitter which makes us feel calm and drowsy. This includes medications like benzodiazepines and non-benzodiazepine hypnotics.

Question 2

Patients with a lack of serotonin can suffer from which of the following?

Accepted Answer

A lack of serotonin has been linked to depression. While it is possible that decreased appetite and decreased need for sleep may be symptoms of depression, they are not directly caused by a lack of serotonin. Inflammatory bowel syndrome is also not necessarily linked to serotonin deficiency.

Question 3

Which of the following is the most abundant inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain?

Accepted Answer

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) is the most abundant inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. ACH is mainly associated with the neuromuscular junction, endorphins are more related to pain perception and mood, and dopamine is a neurotransmitter involved in reward and motivation.

Question 4

Which of the following are released from the adrenal glands as part of the "fight-or-flight" reflex at times of stress?

Accepted Answer

Norepinephrine and epinephrine are both released from the adrenal glands during the "fight-or-flight" response, while serotonin and dopamine are not primarily involved in this response. GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter and is not typically released during times of stress.

Question 5

ACh is responsible for which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is associated with increased acetylcholine (ACh) activity in the brain, which is crucial for this phase of sleep. ACh plays a significant role in modulating REM sleep, during which dreaming and important brain development processes occur.

Question 6

Prescription sleep aids are excreted via:

Accepted Answer

Prescription sleep aids are primarily metabolized by the liver and excreted via the kidneys in the form of urine. Therefore, the best choice is C, kidneys.

Question 7

Drugs that enhance release of acetylcholine (ACh)or inhibit its destruction (such as acetylcholinesterase inhibitors [AChEIs])are useful in the treatment of which of the following diseases?

Accepted Answer

Alzheimer's disease is characterized by a deficiency in the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. Drugs that enhance release of ACh or inhibit its destruction are useful in treating Alzheimer's disease. Huntington disease is a genetic disorder that affects the brain and does not involve acetylcholine deficiency. Crohn's disease and Lyme disease are both autoimmune and infectious diseases respectively, and do not involve acetylcholine deficiency.

Question 8

Succinimides are classified under which pregnancy risk category?

Accepted Answer

Succinimides are classified under pregnancy risk category C, which means there are no adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women, but potential benefits may warrant use of the drug in pregnant women despite potential risks. It is best to consult with a healthcare provider before taking succinimides during pregnancy.

Question 9

Coadministration of anorexiants and which of the following can cause hypertensive crisis?

Accepted Answer

Co-administration of anorexiants (appetite suppressants) with MAOIs can cause hypertensive crisis due to the inhibition of monoamine oxidase, which can lead to dangerous levels of neurotransmitters such as norepinephrine and serotonin in the body. Alcohol, SSRIs, and insulin are not known to cause hypertensive crisis when co-administered with anorexiants.

Question 10

What is the typical dose for gabapentin (Neurontin)?

Accepted Answer

The typical starting dose for gabapentin is 300 mg TID, which can be gradually increased to a maximum dose of 3600 mg/day divided into 3 doses.

Question 11

Grand mal seizures are also known as:

Accepted Answer

Grand mal seizures are also known as tonic-clonic seizures, which involve both tonic (stiffening) and clonic (jerking) phases. This is a type of generalized seizure that involves the entire brain. Absence seizures involve brief loss of consciousness, febrile seizures are caused by fever, and simple partial seizures involve one specific area of the brain.

Question 12

Which of the following is an action of endorphins?

Accepted Answer

Endorphins are produced by the body in response to pain and stress. One of their main actions is to block pain signals, which can lead to a reduction in pain perception. This can also result in a slowing of the heart rate and a decrease in blood pressure. Therefore, option C, slowed heart rate, is the correct choice. Neither A nor B nor D is an action of endorphins.

Question 13

In which of the following diseases is there typically a deficiency in dopamine?

Accepted Answer

Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that is characterized by a loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra region of the brain. This results in a deficiency of dopamine, which is a neurotransmitter that plays a critical role in regulating movement, among other functions. The loss of dopamine leads to the characteristic symptoms of Parkinson's, including tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia (slowness of movement).

Question 14

Which drug should be administered immediately when treating status epilepticus?

Accepted Answer

Lorazepam (Ativan) is considered the first-line treatment for status epilepticus as it has a rapid onset of action and a longer duration of effect compared to other benzodiazepines. It works by enhancing the inhibitory effects of GABA in the brain, which reduces the excitability that causes seizures. Phenobarbital is another option if lorazepam is unavailable or ineffective. Carbamazepine and oxcarbazepine are not recommended for the acute treatment of status epilepticus as they have slower onset of action and are more effective as maintenance therapy for preventing seizures.

Question 15

Which of the following medications can change urine to a brown color and cause a serious skin rash and gingival hyperplasia?

Accepted Answer

Hydantoins (such as phenytoin) can cause urine to turn brown and also has the potential to cause a serious skin rash (Stevens-Johnson Syndrome) and gingival hyperplasia (overgrowth of gum tissue).

Question 16

Which of the following foods can interact with iminostilbenes,causing serum drug levels of these drugs to increase?

Accepted Answer

Grapefruit contains compounds that inhibit the metabolism of iminostilbenes in the liver, leading to increased serum drug levels. This can result in potential toxicity and adverse drug reactions. Therefore, patients taking iminostilbenes should avoid consuming grapefruit or grapefruit juice.

Question 17

Which of the following is an adverse reaction of anorexiants?

Accepted Answer

Anorexiants are appetite suppressants that can cause tachycardia, or an increased heart rate, as an adverse reaction. Miosis (pupil constriction), priapism (prolonged erection), and drooling are not common adverse reactions of anorexiants.

Question 18

Prescription sleep aids can be habit forming;therefore they should be used no longer than:

Accepted Answer

Prescription sleep aids such as benzodiazepines and non-benzodiazepine hypnotics can be habit forming and can lead to dependence if used for an extended period of time. In order to reduce the risk of dependence and withdrawal symptoms, they should be used for no longer than 10 days, according to most prescribing guidelines.

Question 19

Which of the following drugs has a U.S.Federal Drug Administration (FDA)black box warning due to its potential to cause life-threatening blood dyscrasias?

Accepted Answer

Carbamazepine (Tegretol) has a black box warning due to its potential to cause life-threatening blood dyscrasias such as aplastic anemia and agranulocytosis. Barbiturates and ethanol can cause respiratory depression and overdose can be fatal but do not have a black box warning for blood dyscrasias. Levodopa is used for Parkinson's disease and does not have a black box warning for blood dyscrasias.

Question 20

Appetite suppressants have a long history of abuse;therefore;they are placed into which of the following categories under the Controlled Substances Act?

Accepted Answer

Appetite suppressants are classified as Schedule IV drugs under the Controlled Substances Act due to their potential for abuse and limited dependence or addiction liability. This classification makes them available only with a prescription from a healthcare provider.

Quiz 14: Drugs Used to Treat Common Neurological Conditions