You have just examined a 45-year-old,slightly obese female who you diagnosed with T2DM 1 to 2 months ago.Her remaining medical history is unremarkable.Your first line of treatment consisted of the ADA's diet and exercise.You notice her self-reported blood glucose levels have shown an occasional hypoglycemic episode.When she returns today,she is still not in glycemic control.Which step would you recommended next in the treatment of this patient?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Metformin is recommended as the first-line pharmacological treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) due to its efficacy, safety profile, weight neutrality, and potential cardiovascular benefits. It is particularly suitable in this case where the patient is slightly obese and has experienced occasional hypoglycemic episodes, as metformin does not typically cause hypoglycemia when used alone.

You Have Just Examined a 45-Year-Old,slightly Obese Female Who You