A 65-year-old male with a history of untreated hypertension is now experiencing left heart failure. The most likely reason is:
A) ventricular dilation and wall thinning.
B) myocardial hypertrophy and ventricular remodeling.
C) inhibition of renin and aldosterone.
D) alterations in alpha and beta receptor function.

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Myocardial hypertrophy and ventricular remodeling are common responses to untreated hypertension, leading to left heart failure due to increased workload on the heart.

A 65-Year-Old Male with a History of Untreated Hypertension Is