The physician has ordered intravenous (IV) phenytoin (Dilantin) . The nurse does not read the drug label and administers the medication intramuscularly (IM) . What is the most likely response in the client?
A) A marked decrease in serum glucose levels will most likely occur.
B) A phenomenon known as purple gluteus syndrome will most likely occur.
C) Nothing adverse, the medication may be administered intravenously (IV) or intramuscularly (IM) .
D) Local tissue damage following extravasation will most likely occur.
Correct Answer:
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