Question 1

Anti-HIV antibodies are best at binding to viral proteins when the virus is
A) within the cytoplasm of an infected T cell.
B) within the nucleus of an infected T cell.
C) within the cytoplasm of an infected macrophage.
D) within the nucleus of an infected macrophage.
E) extracellular within the bloodstream.

Accepted Answer

Anti-HIV antibodies are designed to bind to viral proteins found on the surface of extracellular viruses. This is because antibodies are proteins themselves and cannot penetrate into cells or other compartments like nuclei or cytoplasm. Therefore, the best option would be when the virus is extracellular within the bloodstream, where the antibodies can directly bind to it and tag it for destruction by other immune cells.

Question 2

To which superfamily do antibodies belong?
A) interleukins
B) heat shock
C) immunoglobulin
D) major histocompatibility complex
E) homeobox

Accepted Answer

Antibodies belong to the immunoglobulin superfamily.

Question 3

The chickenpox vaccine is created with an attenuated virus, and the rabies vaccine with an inactivated virus. This means that the chickenpox virus is a ________, and the rabies virus is ________.
A) subunit vaccine; a genetic vaccine
B) genetic vaccine; a subunit vaccine
C) nonfunctional form; living but weakened
D) subunit vaccine; nonfunctional
E) living weakened form; nonfunctional

Accepted Answer

The chickenpox vaccine is created with a living weakened form of the virus, which is an example of an attenuated vaccine. The rabies vaccine is created with a nonfunctional form of the virus, which is an example of an inactivated vaccine. Therefore, the correct answer is E, which states that the chickenpox virus is a living weakened form, and the rabies virus is nonfunctional.

Question 4

The immune response elicited from each individual antigenic determinant found within an antigen is best described as
A) monoclonal.
B) multiclonal.
C) biclonal.
D) polyclonal.
E) triclonal.

Accepted Answer

The answer of The immune response elicited from each individual...

Question 5

Which of the following could be categorized as an example of humoral immunity?
A) T regulatory cells
B) T helper cells
C) antimalaria antibodies
D) T cytotoxic cells
E) macrophages

Accepted Answer

Humoral immunity involves the production of antibodies by B cells, which are then circulated in the bloodstream to defend against pathogens or toxins. Antimalaria antibodies, which are produced in response to the malaria parasite, would fall under this category. T regulatory cells, T helper cells, T cytotoxic cells, and macrophages are all part of the cell-mediated immune response, which is a separate branch of the immune system.

Question 6

Which of the following is most likely to elicit the strongest antigen-specific immune response if injected intravenously into a mouse?
A) a sterile glucose solution
B) equine serum albumin
C) complement proteins from another mouse
D) red blood cells from a transfusion-compatible species
E) mouse antigoat antibodies

Accepted Answer

Equine serum albumin is a foreign protein that is highly immunogenic and is likely to elicit a strong antigen-specific immune response if injected intravenously into a mouse. The other options are less immunogenic or are not foreign to the mouse immune system.

Question 7

The small segment of antigen that is capable of eliciting an immune response is called a(n)
A) hapten.
B) clonotope.
C) aggretope.
D) epitope.
E) naïve antigen.

Accepted Answer

The small segment of an antigen that can elicit an immune response from the host is called an epitope. It is also called an antigenic determinant because it can interact with an antibody or T cell receptor. Option A, hapten, is a small molecule which can elicit an immune response only when attached to a larger carrier molecule. Option B, clonotope, and C, aggretope, are not terms commonly used in immunology. Option E, naive antigen, is not a defined term in immunology.

Question 8

Of the following cells, which could be considered a "professional" antigen-presenting cell?
A) neutrophil
B) T lymphocyte
C) natural killer cell
D) dendritic cell
E) fibroblast

Accepted Answer

Dendritic cells are considered professional antigen-presenting cells because they have the ability to activate naive T cells and initiate an adaptive immune response. Neutrophils, T lymphocytes, natural killer cells, and fibroblasts do not have this specific function.

Question 9

In a radial immunodiffusion assay, immunoprecipitation rings will be created within the agar dish based on
A) equivalence point.
B) antibody isotype.
C) antibody allotype.
D) polyclonal antigen preparation.
E) Fc binding of antigens.

Accepted Answer

Radial immunodiffusion assay uses a fixed concentration of antibody placed in an agar dish which gradually diffuses outwards. As the antigen diffuses outwards and interact with antibody, the formation of immunoprecipitation rings occurs. The equivalence point, representing the point where the concentration of antigen is equal to the concentration of antibody is observed as the ring radius. Therefore, the correct answer is A) equivalence point.

Question 10

The five classes of antibodies (IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE, and IgD) that can be produced during an immune response are based on differences in ________ chain regions. A) C_L B) V_H C) C_H D) V_L E) all constant and variable

Accepted Answer

The five classes of antibodies differ based on differences in their constant (C) heavy (H) chain regions.

Question 11

Laboratory isolation of an anti-Streptococcus antibody was found to bind to ten Streptococcus pyogenes at one time. The antibody isolated was
A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgD.
E) IgE.

Accepted Answer

IgM is a pentameric antibody that has 10 binding sites, allowing it to bind to 10 antigens at once. IgG, IgA, IgD, and IgE are monomeric antibodies with only one binding site per molecule.

Question 12

Which of the following is most likely to elicit the strongest antigen-specific immune response within a human?
A) an outer membrane protein from Plasmodium falciparium
B) an RNA genome from HIV
C) a DNA genome from herpes
D) a capsular polysaccharide coating from Streptococcus mutans
E) a plasma membrane from Escherichia coli

Accepted Answer

Outer membrane proteins from Plasmodium falciparum are a major target of the immune system in individuals who have been infected with the malaria parasite. Thus, they are most likely to elicit a strong antigen-specific immune response in humans. The other options, while still capable of eliciting an immune response, are not as well-known or well-studied in terms of immune system recognition.

Question 13

Figure B below displays a A.

A) denatured antigen.
B) antigen-presenting cell.
C) mast cell.
D) native antigen.
E) conformational epitope.

Accepted Answer

The answer of Figure B below displays a A.

A)...

Question 14

Severe combined immunodeficiency is most commonly caused by
A) chromosome 22 trisomy.
B) Y-linked inherited hypermetabolism.
C) X-linked inherited enzyme or receptor deficiency.
D) chromosome 7 deletion.
E) XXY inheritance.

Accepted Answer

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is most commonly caused by X-linked inherited enzyme or receptor deficiencies, particularly in genes that encode for the common cytokine receptor gamma chain (γc) or adenosine deaminase (ADA).

Question 15

A threshold dose of antigen is best described as the dose needed to
A) generate an optimal immune response.
B) activate only a few immune cells.
C) generate only a T-cell response.
D) induce immune complement response.
E) induce immunological tolerance.

Accepted Answer

A threshold dose of antigen is the lowest dose needed to generate an optimal immune response. This is the dose at which enough antigen is present to stimulate a sufficient number of immune cells to produce an effective response, but not so high that it overwhelms the immune system and leads to immune exhaustion or tolerance.

Question 16

Edward Jenner was able to demonstrate the first example of immunological cross-protection because
A) the smallpox virus was nonpathogenic.
B) the cowpox virus only affected milkmaids.
C) cowpox and smallpox viruses were metabolically different.
D) cowpox virus was structurally similar to the smallpox virus.
E) plague survivors were immune to smallpox.

Accepted Answer

Edward Jenner discovered that the cowpox virus, which caused a much milder disease than smallpox, conferred immunity to smallpox because it was structurally similar to the smallpox virus. This similarity allowed the immune system to recognize and fight off smallpox after being exposed to cowpox.

Question 17

What process is shown in the figure below? 
A) elicitation of an immune response
B) haptens
C) immunoprecipitation
D) antibodies preventing attachment
E) basic antibody structure

Accepted Answer

The answer of What process is shown in the figure...

Question 18

The difference between antibody allotypes and isotypes is that isotypes are ________ and allotypes are ________.
A) the differences in constant regions; differences within isotypes
B) differences within allotypes; the differences in constant regions
C) the differences in constant regions; alternations in the hypervariable regions
D) alternations in the hypervariable regions; differences within isotypes
E) alternations in the hypervariable regions of one person; alternations in the hypervariable regions among a species

Accepted Answer

Isotypes are the different classes of antibodies, whereas allotypes are the genetic variations within each isotype. The differences between allotypes are found in the constant regions of the antibody molecule, while differences between isotypes are related to the structure and function of the antibody as a whole.

Question 19

People who survived infection with Yersinia pestis during the fourteenth-century European epidemic found themselves immune when reexposed to
A) influenza.
B) syphilis.
C) smallpox.
D) plague.
E) pneumonia.

Accepted Answer

Survivors of the fourteenth-century European epidemic were found to be immune when reexposed to Yersinia pestis, the bacteria that causes bubonic plague.

Question 20

Which of the following would be considered an aspect of the adaptive immune response?
A) interferons
B) lymphocytes
C) defensins
D) natural killer cells
E) neutrophils

Accepted Answer

Lymphocytes are cells of the adaptive immune system, which is responsible for generating a specific response to a particular pathogen or foreign substance. Interferons, defensins, natural killer cells, and neutrophils are all components of the innate immune system, which provides a generalized response to a wide range of pathogens.

Quiz 24: The Adaptive Immune Response

Anti-HIV antibodies are best at binding to viral proteins when the virus is

To which superfamily do antibodies belong?

The chickenpox vaccine is created with an attenuated virus, and the rabies vaccine with an inactivated virus. This means that the chickenpox virus is a , and the rabies virus is .

The immune response elicited from each individual antigenic determinant found within an antigen is best described as

Which of the following could be categorized as an example of humoral immunity?

Which of the following is most likely to elicit the strongest antigen-specific immune response if injected intravenously into a mouse?

The small segment of antigen that is capable of eliciting an immune response is called a(n)

Of the following cells, which could be considered a "professional" antigen-presenting cell?

In a radial immunodiffusion assay, immunoprecipitation rings will be created within the agar dish based on

The five classes of antibodies (IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE, and IgD) that can be produced during an immune response are based on differences in ________ chain regions.

Laboratory isolation of an anti-Streptococcus antibody was found to bind to ten Streptococcus pyogenes at one time. The antibody isolated was

Which of the following is most likely to elicit the strongest antigen-specific immune response within a human?

Figure B below displays a A.

Severe combined immunodeficiency is most commonly caused by

A threshold dose of antigen is best described as the dose needed to

Edward Jenner was able to demonstrate the first example of immunological cross-protection because

What process is shown in the figure below?

The difference between antibody allotypes and isotypes is that isotypes are and allotypes are .

People who survived infection with Yersinia pestis during the fourteenth-century European epidemic found themselves immune when reexposed to

Which of the following would be considered an aspect of the adaptive immune response?