A 68-year-old man comes to the office due to intermittent, painless blood in his urine. He has no other symptoms. The patient uses transdermal testosterone for chronic hypogonadism and erectile dysfunction. He has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years; he drinks 2 shots of vodka every day and 2 glasses of wine once a week. He works as an operations manager for a large beverage company and frequently travels to Mexico. Vital signs are within normal limits. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities. On digital rectal examination, the prostate is smooth with no nodules. Urinalysis is positive for >50 red blood cells/hpf; there are no casts or dysmorphic blood cells. Urine cytology is positive for malignant cells. Renal ultrasonogram reveals normal kidneys. Which of the following is a major risk factor for this patient's current condition?
A) Alcohol use
B) Occupation
C) Testosterone therapy
D) Tobacco smoking
E) Travel history
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q714: A 64-year-old woman comes to her nephrologist
Q715: A 16-year-old boy is brought to the
Q716: A 50-year-old man with polycystic kidney disease
Q717: Results of the laboratory tests show an
Q718: A 7-year-old boy is brought to the
Q720: A 17-year-old boy is brought to the
Q721: A 5-year-old boy is brought to the
Q722: A 42-year-old man comes to the office
Q723: A 60-year-old woman is being evaluated for
Q724: A 4-year-old girl developed acute-onset colicky abdominal
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents