A 63-year-old man comes to the office due to intermittent rectal bleeding. The bleeding worsens with defecation and is associated with itchiness. Ten years ago, he had a kidney transplant for diabetic nephropathy and reports compliance with posttransplant immunosuppression medications. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination reveals a 2-cm ulcerated mass extending from the anal verge into the rectum. Biopsy shows large, eosinophilic squamous epithelial cells arranged in islands; cells have hyperchromatic, irregular nuclei, and scant cytoplasm. Significant keratinization is present. Which of the following factors is most likely responsible for the development of this patient's anal lesion?
A) BRAF mutation
B) Human herpesvirus 8
C) Human papillomavirus
D) Mismatch repair gene mutation
E) Poxvirus
F) Treponema pallidum
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q186: A 38-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q187: A 33-year-old woman comes to a fertility
Q188: A 54-year-old man comes to the office
Q189: A 15-month-old boy is brought to the
Q190: A 55-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q192: A 65-year-old woman comes to the office
Q193: A 23-year-old woman is being evaluated for
Q194: A 24-year-old woman comes to the office
Q195: A 50-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q196: A 20-year-old woman comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents