A 54-year-old man comes to the office for evaluation of chronic diarrhea and weight loss. He has had bulky, foul-smelling stools for the past 8 months, which usually occur shortly after eating. There have been no nocturnal bowel movements, and he denies fecal incontinence. The patient also experiences dull, epigastric abdominal pain that is exacerbated by eating and unrelieved by antacids. He drinks 6 or 7 beers a day but denies tobacco or illicit drug use. Vital signs are within normal limits. The abdomen is tender to palpation in the epigastrium without distension, rebound, or guarding. Sudan staining of a fecal specimen is positive, and fecal occult blood testing is negative. Blood testing reveals normal hemoglobin. Which of the following pathophysiologic changes are most likely present in this patient?
A) Decreased bile acid synthesis
B) Decreased levels of fecal elastase
C) Impaired production of intrinsic factor
D) Increased pancreatic bicarbonate secretion
E) Small bowel villous atrophy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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