A 66-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to abdominal pain and nausea. He has had no vomiting or bloody stools. Yesterday he underwent a screening colonoscopy, which revealed scattered diverticulosis and 2 polyps that were then removed. The patient's other medical conditions include hypertension and gastroesophageal reflux disease.
Temperature is 38.1 C (100.6 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 98/min. Mucous membranes are moist. The abdomen is tender in the periumbilical and left lower quadrants with no rebound tenderness.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Upright abdominal radiographs show no free air under the diaphragm.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Obtain CT scan of the abdomen with water-soluble contrast
B) Order noncontrast CT scan of the abdomen
C) Perform flexible sigmoidoscopy
D) Prescribe oral antibiotics and follow-up in 2 days
E) Provide reassurance for discomfort from procedural air insufflation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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