A 32-year-old woman with a history of migraine headaches comes to the emergency department with severe left-sided headache and nausea that started 3 hours ago. Earlier in the morning she had blurry vision and saw halos around lights. She took ibuprofen an hour ago but vomited shortly afterward.
Her vital signs are within normal limits. The patient feels uncomfortable when her eyes are examined with a flashlight. The pupils are equal and reactive. Muscle strength and tone are normal and deep-tendon reflexes are symmetrical. She is treated with intravenous metoclopramide. One hour later, she complains of neck pain. Physical examination shows sustained contraction of the posterior neck muscles associated with neck extension and tenderness.
What is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Intramuscular haloperidol
B) Intravenous diphenhydramine
C) Lumbar puncture
D) Noncontrast CT of the head
E) Subcutaneous sumatriptan
Correct Answer:
Verified
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